Reading Test

65 MINUTES, 52 QUESTIONS

Turn to Section 1 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

DIRECTIONS

Each passage or pair of passages below is followed by a number of questions. After reading

each passage or pair, choose the best answer to each question based on what is stated or

implied in the passage or passages and in any accompanying graphics (such as a table or

graph).

Questions 1-10 are based on the following

fate into the servant of my will. All this I understand,

passage.

as I understand each detail of the technique by which

this is carried out. What I don’t understand is why I

This passage is adapted from MacDonald Harris,

am so intent on going to this particular place. Who

During the summer of 1897, the narrator of this story, a

wants the North Pole! What good is it! Can you eat

fictional Swedish scientist, has set out for the North Pole

it? Will it carry you from Gothenburg to Malmö like

in a hydrogen-powered balloon.

a railway? The Danish ministers have declared from

their pulpits that participation in polar expeditions is

My emotions are complicated and not

beneficial to the soul’s eternal well-being, or so I read

readily verifiable. I feel a vast yearning that is

in a newspaper. It isn’t clear how this doctrine is to

simultaneously a pleasure and a pain. I am certain

be interpreted, except that the Pole is something

of the consummation of this yearning, but I don’t

Line

difficult or impossible to attain which must

know yet what form it will take, since I do not

nevertheless be sought for, because man is

understand quite what it is that the yearning desires.

condemned to seek out and know everything

For the first time there is borne in upon me the full

whether or not the knowledge gives him pleasure. In

truth of what I myself said to the doctor only an hour

short, it is the same unthinking lust for knowledge

ago: that my motives in this undertaking are not

that drove our First Parents out of the garden.

entirely clear. For years, for a lifetime, the machinery

And suppose you were to find it in spite of all, this

of my destiny has worked in secret to prepare for this

wonderful place that everybody is so anxious to stand

moment; its clockwork has moved exactly toward

on! What would you find? Exactly nothing.

this time and place and no other. Rising slowly from

A point precisely identical to all the others in a

the earth that bore me and gave me sustenance, I am

completely featureless wasteland stretching around it

carried helplessly toward an uninhabited and hostile,

for hundreds of miles. It is an abstraction, a

or at best indifferent, part of the earth, littered with

mathematical fiction. No one but a Swedish madman

the bones of explorers and the wrecks of ships, frozen

could take the slightest interest in it. Here I am. The

supply caches, messages scrawled with chilled fingers

wind is still from the south, bearing us steadily

and hidden in cairns that no eye will ever see.

northward at the speed of a trotting dog. Behind us,

Nobody has succeeded in this thing, and many have

perhaps forever, lie the Cities of Men with their

died. Yet in freely willing this enterprise, in choosing

this moment and no other when the south wind

will carry me exactly northward at a velocity of

eight knots, I have converted the machinery of my

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CONTINUE

teacups and their brass bedsteads. I am going forth of

my own volition to join the ghosts of Bering and

The sentence in lines 10-13 (“For years . . . other”)

poor Franklin, of frozen De Long and his men.

mainly serves to

What I am on the brink of knowing, I now see, is not

an ephemeral mathematical spot but myself. The

A) expose a side of the narrator that he prefers to

doctor was right, even though I dislike him.

keep hidden.

Fundamentally I am a dangerous madman, and what

B) demonstrate that the narrator thinks in a

I do is both a challenge to my egotism and a

methodical and scientific manner.

surrender to it.

C) show that the narrator feels himself to be

influenced by powerful and independent forces.

D) emphasize the length of time during which the

narrator has prepared for his expedition.

Over the course of the passage, the narrator’s attitude

shifts from

A) fear about the expedition to excitement about it.

B) doubt about his abilities to confidence in them.

The narrator indicates that many previous explorers

C) uncertainty of his motives to recognition of

seeking the North Pole have

them.

A) perished in the attempt.

D) disdain for the North Pole to appreciation of it.

B) made surprising discoveries.

C) failed to determine its exact location.

D) had different motivations than his own.

Which choice provides the best evidence for the

answer to the previous question?

A) Lines 10-12 (“For . . . moment”)

Which choice provides the best evidence for the

B) Lines 21-25 (“Yet . . . will”)

answer to the previous question?

C) Lines 42-44 (“And . . . stand on”)

A) Lines 20-21 (“Nobody . . . died”)

D) Lines 56-57 (“What . . . myself”)

B) Lines 25-27 (“All . . . out”)

C) Lines 31-34 (“The . . . newspaper”)

D) Lines 51-53 (“Behind . . . bedsteads”)

As used in lines 1-2, “not readily verifiable” most

nearly means

A) unable to be authenticated.

Which choice best describes the narrator’s view of

B) likely to be contradicted.

his expedition to the North Pole?

C) without empirical support.

A) Immoral but inevitable

D) not completely understood.

B) Absurd but necessary

C) Socially beneficial but misunderstood

D) Scientifically important but hazardous

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CONTINUE

Questions 11-21 are based on the following

passage and supplementary material.

The question the narrator asks in lines 30-31

This passage is adapted from Alan Ehrenhalt, The Great

(“Will it . . . railway”) most nearly implies that

A) balloons will never replace other modes of

Vintage. Ehrenhalt is an urbanologist—a scholar of cities

transportation.

and their development. Demographic inversion is a

phenomenon that describes the rearrangement of living

B) the North Pole is farther away than the cities

patterns throughout a metropolitan area.

usually reached by train.

C) people often travel from one city to another

We are not witnessing the abandonment of the

without considering the implications.

suburbs, or a movement of millions of people back to

the city all at once. The 2010 census certainly did not

D) reaching the North Pole has no foreseeable

turn up evidence of a middle-class stampede to the

Line

benefit to humanity.

nation’s cities. The news was mixed: Some of the

larger cities on the East Coast tended to gain

population, albeit in small increments. Those in the

Midwest, including Chicago, tended to lose

As used in line 49, “take the slightest interest in”

substantial numbers. The cities that showed gains in

most nearly means

overall population during the entire decade tended to

be in the South and Southwest. But when it comes to

A) accept responsibility for.

measuring demographic inversion, raw census

B) possess little regard for.

numbers are an ineffective blunt instrument. A closer

C) pay no attention to.

look at the results shows that the most powerful

demographic events of the past decade were the

D) have curiosity about.

movement of African Americans out of central cities

(180,000 of them in Chicago alone) and the

settlement of immigrant groups in suburbs, often

ones many miles distant from downtown.

As used in line 50, “bearing” most nearly means

Central-city areas that gained affluent residents in

A) carrying.

the first part of the decade maintained that

population in the recession years from 2007 to 2009.

B) affecting.

They also, according to a 2011 study by Brookings,

C) yielding.

suffered considerably less from increased

unemployment than the suburbs did. Not many

D) enduring.

young professionals moved to new downtown

condos in the recession years because few such

residences were being built. But there is no reason to

believe that the demographic trends prevailing prior

to the construction bust will not resume once that

bust is over. It is important to remember that

demographic inversion is not a proxy for population

growth; it can occur in cities that are growing, those

whose numbers are flat, and even in those

undergoing a modest decline in size.

America’s major cities face enormous fiscal

problems, many of them the result of public pension

obligations they incurred in the more prosperous

years of the past two decades. Some, Chicago

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CONTINUE

prominent among them, simply are not producing

where the commercial life of the metropolis was

enough revenue to support the level of public

conducted; it had a factory district just beyond; it had

services to which most of the citizens have grown to

districts of working-class residences just beyond that;

feel entitled. How the cities are going to solve this

and it had residential suburbs for the wealthy and the

problem, I do not know. What I do know is that if

upper middle class at the far end of the continuum.

fiscal crisis were going to drive affluent professionals

As a family moved up the economic ladder, it also

out of central cities, it would have done so by now.

moved outward from crowded working-class

There is no evidence that it has.

districts to more spacious apartments and,

The truth is that we are living at a moment in

eventually, to a suburban home. The suburbs of

which the massive outward migration of the affluent

Burgess’s time bore little resemblance to those at the

that characterized the second half of the

end of the twentieth century, but the theory still

twentieth century is coming to an end. And we need

essentially worked. People moved ahead in life by

to adjust our perceptions of cities, suburbs, and

moving farther out.

urban mobility as a result.

But in the past decade, in quite a few places, this

Much of our perspective on the process of

model has ceased to describe reality. There are still

metropolitan settlement dates, whether we realize it

downtown commercial districts, but there are no

or not, from a paper written in 1925 by the

factory districts lying next to them. There are

University of Chicago sociologist Ernest W. Burgess.

scarcely any factories at all. These close-in parts of

It was Burgess who defined four urban/suburban

the city, whose few residents Burgess described as

zones of settlement: a central business district; an

dwelling in “submerged regions of poverty,

area of manufacturing just beyond it; then a

degradation and disease,” are increasingly the

residential area inhabited by the industrial and

preserve of the affluent who work in the commercial

immigrant working class; and finally an outer

core. And just as crucially newcomers to America are

enclave of single-family dwellings.

not settling on the inside and accumulating the

Burgess was right about the urban America of

resources to move out; they are living in the suburbs

1925; he was right about the urban America of 1974.

from day one.

Virtually every city in the country had a downtown,

United States Population by Metropolitan Size/Status, 1980 -2010

Chart 1

Chart 2

2010 Population Shares

Growth Rates by Metro Size

by Metro Size (%)

1980 -1990

16%

14.3

1990 -2000

14%

13.1

non-

12.5

2000 -2010

12%

10.9

metro

10.3

10%

9.0

16.4%

8.8

small

metro

4.5

large metro

18.0%

65.6%

1.8

large metro

small metro

non-metro

(>500k)

(<500k)

Adapted from William H. Frey, “Population Growth in Metro America since 1980: Putting the Volatile 2000s in Perspective.” Published 2012 by Metropolitan

Policy Program, Brookings Institution.

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CONTINUE

Which choice best summarizes the first paragraph of

According to the passage, which choice best

the passage (lines 1-35)?

describes the current financial situation in many

major American cities?

A) The 2010 census demonstrated a sizeable growth

in the number of middle-class families moving

A) Expected tax increases due to demand for

into inner cities.

public works

B) The 2010 census is not a reliable instrument for

B) Economic hardship due to promises made in

measuring population trends in American cities.

past years

C) Population growth and demographic inversion

C) Greater overall prosperity due to an increased

are distinct phenomena, and demographic

inner-city tax base

inversion is evident in many American cities.

D) Insufficient revenues due to a decrease in

D) Population growth in American cities has been

manufacturing

increasing since roughly 2000, while suburban

populations have decreased.

Which choice provides the best evidence for the

answer to the previous question?

According to the passage, members of which group

A) Lines 36-39 (“America’s . . . decades”)

moved away from central-city areas in large numbers

B) Lines 43-44 (“How . . . not know”)

in the early 2000s?

C) Lines 44-46 (“What . . . now”)

A) The unemployed

D) Lines 48-51 (“The truth . . . end”)

B) Immigrants

C) Young professionals

D) African Americans

The passage implies that American cities in 1974

A) were witnessing the flight of minority

populations to the suburbs.

In line 34, “flat” is closest in meaning to

B) had begun to lose their manufacturing sectors.

A) static.

C) had a traditional four-zone structure.

B) deflated.

D) were already experiencing demographic

C) featureless.

inversion.

D) obscure.

Which choice provides the best evidence for the

answer to the previous question?

A) Lines 54-57 (“Much . . . Ernest W. Burgess”)

B) Lines 58-59 (“It was . . . settlement”)

C) Lines 66-71 (“Virtually . . . continuum”)

D) Lines 72-75 (“As . . . home”)

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CONTINUE

As used in line 68, “conducted” is closest in

According to chart 2, the years 2000-2010 were

meaning to

characterized by

A) carried out.

A) less growth in metropolitan areas of all sizes than

had taken place in the 1990s.

B) supervised.

B) more growth in small metropolitan areas than in

C) regulated.

large metropolitan areas.

D) inhibited.

C) a significant decline in the population of small

metropolitan areas compared to the 1980s.

D) roughly equal growth in large metropolitan areas

and nonmetropolitan areas.

The author of the passage would most likely consider

the information in chart 1 to be

A) excellent evidence for the arguments made in the

passage.

Chart 2 suggests which of the following about

B) possibly accurate but too crude to be truly

population change in the 1990s?

informative.

A) Large numbers of people moved from suburban

C) compelling but lacking in historical information.

areas to urban areas in the 1990s.

D) representative of a perspective with which the

B) Growth rates fell in smaller metropolitan areas in

author disagrees.

the 1990s.

C) Large numbers of people moved from

metropolitan areas to nonmetropolitan areas in

the 1990s.

D) The US population as a whole grew more in the

1990s than in the 1980s.

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CONTINUE

Questions 22-31 are based on the following

2,000 Americans are born with a genetic mutation

passage.

that prevents them from making antithrombin.

These patients are prone to clots, especially in their

This passage is adapted from Emily Anthes, Frankenstein's

legs and lungs, and they are at elevated risk of

suffering from fatal complications during surgery

When scientists first learned how to edit the

and childbirth. Supplemental antithrombin can

genomes of animals, they began to imagine all the

reduce this risk, and GTC decided to try to

ways they could use this new power. Creating

manufacture the compound using genetically

Line

brightly colored novelty pets was not a high priority.

engineered goats.

Instead, most researchers envisioned far more

To create its special herd of goats, GTC used

consequential applications, hoping to create

microinjection, the same technique that produced

genetically engineered animals that saved human

GloFish and AquAdvantage salmon. The company’s

lives. One enterprise is now delivering on this dream.

scientists took the gene for human antithrombin and

Welcome to the world of “pharming,” in which

injected it directly into fertilized goat eggs. Then they

simple genetic tweaks turn animals into living

implanted the eggs in the wombs of female goats.

pharmaceutical factories.

When the kids were born, some of them proved to be

Many of the proteins that our cells crank out

transgenic, the human gene nestled safely in their

naturally make for good medicine. Our bodies’ own

cells. The researchers paired the antithrombin gene

enzymes, hormones, clotting factors, and antibodies

with a promoter (which is a sequence of DNA that

are commonly used to treat cancer, diabetes,

controls gene activity) that is normally active in the

autoimmune diseases, and more. The trouble is that

goat’s mammary glands during milk production.

it’s difficult and expensive to make these compounds

When the transgenic females lactated, the promoter

on an industrial scale, and as a result, patients can

turned the transgene on and the goats’ udders filled

face shortages of the medicines they need. Dairy

with milk containing antithrombin. All that was left

animals, on the other hand, are expert protein

to do was to collect the milk, and extract and purify

producers, their udders swollen with milk. So the

the protein. Et voilà—human medicine! And, for

creation of the first transgenic animals—first mice,

GTC, liquid gold. ATryn hit the market in 2006,

then other species—in the 1980s gave scientists an

becoming the world’s first transgenic animal drug.

idea: What if they put the gene for a human antibody

Over the course of a year, the “milking parlors” on

or enzyme into a cow, goat, or sheep? If they put the

GTC’s 300-acre farm in Massachusetts can collect

gene in just the right place, under the control of the

more than a kilogram of medicine from a single

right molecular switch, maybe they could engineer

animal.

animals that produced healing human proteins in

their milk. Then doctors could collect medicine by

the bucketful.

Throughout the 1980s and ’90s, studies provided

proof of principle, as scientists created transgenic

The primary purpose of the passage is to

mice, sheep, goats, pigs, cattle, and rabbits that did in

A) present the background of a medical

fact make therapeutic compounds in their milk.

breakthrough.

At first, this work was merely gee-whiz, scientific

B) evaluate the research that led to a scientific

geekery, lab-bound thought experiments come true.

discovery.

That all changed with ATryn, a drug produced by the

Massachusetts firm GTC Biotherapeutics. ATryn is

C) summarize the findings of a long-term research

antithrombin, an anticoagulant that can be used to

project.

prevent life-threatening blood clots. The compound,

D) explain the development of a branch of scientific

made by our liver cells, plays a key role in keeping

study.

our bodies clot-free. It acts as a molecular bouncer,

sidling up to clot-forming compounds and escorting

them out of the bloodstream. But as many as 1 in

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CONTINUE

The author’s attitude toward pharming is best

According to the passage, which of the following is

described as one of

true of antithrombin?

A) apprehension.

A) It reduces compounds that lead to blood clots.

B) ambivalence.

B) It stems from a genetic mutation that is rare in

humans.

C) appreciation.

C) It is a sequence of DNA known as a promoter.

D) astonishment.

D) It occurs naturally in goats’ mammary glands.

As used in line 20, “expert” most nearly means

Which choice provides the best evidence for the

A) knowledgeable.

answer to the previous question?

B) professional.

A) Lines 12-16 (“Many . . . more”)

C) capable.

B) Lines 42-44 (“It acts . . . bloodstream”)

D) trained.

C) Lines 44-46 (“But as . . . antithrombin”)

D) Lines 62-65 (“The researchers . . . production”)

What does the author suggest about the transgenic

studies done in the 1980s and 1990s?

Which of the following does the author suggest about

A) They were limited by the expensive nature of

the “female goats” mentioned in line 59?

animal research.

A) They secreted antithrombin in their milk after

B) They were not expected to yield products ready

giving birth.

for human use.

B) Some of their kids were not born with the

C) They were completed when an anticoagulant

antithrombin gene.

compound was identified.

C) They were the first animals to receive

D) They focused only on the molecular properties of

microinjections.

cows, goats, and sheep.

D) Their cells already contained genes usually found

in humans.

Which choice provides the best evidence for the

answer to the previous question?

The most likely purpose of the parenthetical

A) Lines 16-19 (“The trouble . . . need”)

information in lines 63-64 is to

B) Lines 25-29 (“If they . . . milk”)

A) illustrate an abstract concept.

C) Lines 35-36 (“At first . . . true”)

B) describe a new hypothesis.

D) Lines 37-40 (“That all . . . clots”)

C) clarify a claim.

D) define a term.

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CONTINUE

Questions 32-41 are based on the following

passages.

The phrase “liquid gold” (line 71) most directly

Passage 1 is adapted from Edmund Burke, Reflections on the

suggests that

Revolution in France. Originally published in 1790. Passage 2

GTC has invested a great deal of money in the

is adapted from Thomas Paine, Rights of Man. Originally

microinjection technique.

published in 1791.

GTC’s milking parlors have significantly

Passage 1

increased milk production.

To avoid . . . the evils of inconstancy and

transgenic goats will soon be a valuable asset for

versatility, ten thousand times worse than those of

dairy farmers.

obstinacy and the blindest prejudice, we have

consecrated the state, that no man should approach

Line

ATryn has proved to be a financially beneficial

to look into its defects or corruptions but with due

product for GTC.

caution; that he should never dream of beginning its

reformation by its subversion; that he should

approach to the faults of the state as to the wounds of

a father, with pious awe and trembling solicitude. By

this wise prejudice we are taught to look with horror

on those children of their country who are prompt

rashly to hack that aged parent in pieces, and put him

into the kettle of magicians, in hopes that by their

poisonous weeds, and wild incantations, they may

regenerate the paternal constitution, and renovate

their father’s life.

Society is indeed a contract. Subordinate contracts

for objects of mere occasional interest may be

dissolved at pleasure—but the state ought not to be

considered as nothing better than a partnership

agreement in a trade of pepper and coffee, calico or

tobacco, or some other such low concern, to be taken

up for a little temporary interest, and to be dissolved

by the fancy of the parties. It is to be looked on with

other reverence; because it is not a partnership in

things subservient only to the gross animal existence

of a temporary and perishable nature. It is a

partnership in all science; a partnership in all art; a

partnership in every virtue, and in all perfection.

As the ends of such a partnership cannot be obtained

in many generations, it becomes a partnership not

only between those who are living, but between those

who are living, those who are dead, and those who

are to be born

The municipal corporations of

that universal kingdom are not morally at liberty at

their pleasure, and on their speculations of a

contingent improvement, wholly to separate and tear

asunder the bands of their subordinate community,

and to dissolve it into an unsocial, uncivil,

unconnected chaos of elementary principles.

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CONTINUE

Passage 2

Every age and generation must be as free to act for

In Passage 1, Burke indicates that a contract between

itself, in all cases, as the ages and generations which

a person and society differs from other contracts

preceded it. The vanity and presumption of

mainly in its

governing beyond the grave, is the most ridiculous

and insolent of all tyrannies.

A) brevity and prominence.

Man has no property in man; neither has any

B) complexity and rigidity.

generation a property in the generations which are to

C) precision and usefulness.

follow. The Parliament or the people of 1688, or of

any other period, had no more right to dispose of the

D) seriousness and permanence.

people of the present day, or to bind or to control

them in any shape whatever, than the parliament or

the people of the present day have to dispose of, bind,

or control those who are to live a hundred or a

As used in line 4, “state” most nearly refers to a

thousand years hence.

Every generation is, and must be, competent

A) style of living.

to all the purposes which its occasions require. It is

B) position in life.

the living, and not the dead, that are to be

C) temporary condition.

accommodated. When man ceases to be, his power

and his wants cease with him; and having no longer

D) political entity.

any participation in the concerns of this world, he

has no longer any authority in directing who shall be

its governors, or how its government shall be

organized, or how administered

As used in line 22, “low” most nearly means

Those who have quitted the world, and those who

A) petty.

are not yet arrived at it, are as remote from each

other, as the utmost stretch of mortal imagination

B) weak.

can conceive. What possible obligation, then, can

C) inadequate.

exist between them; what rule or principle can be laid

D) depleted.

down, that two nonentities, the one out of existence,

and the other not in, and who never can meet in this

world, that the one should control the other to the

end of time? . . .

The circumstances of the world are continually

It can most reasonably be inferred from Passage

changing, and the opinions of men change also; and

that Paine views historical precedents as

as government is for the living, and not for the dead,

A) generally helpful to those who want to change

it is the living only that has any right in it. That

society.

which may be thought right and found convenient in

one age, may be thought wrong and found

B) surprisingly difficult for many people to

inconvenient in another. In such cases, who is to

comprehend.

decide, the living, or the dead?

C) frequently responsible for human progress.

D) largely irrelevant to current political decisions.

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CONTINUE

How would Paine most likely respond to Burke’s

Which choice provides the best evidence for the

statement in lines 30-34, Passage 1 (“As the . . .

answer to the previous question?

born”)?

A) Lines 1-4 (“To avoid . . . state”)

A) He would assert that the notion of a partnership

B) Lines 7-9 (“he should . . . solicitude”)

across generations is less plausible to people of

C) Lines 27-29 (“It is . . . perfection”)

his era than it was to people in the past.

D) Lines 34-38 (“The municipal . . . community”)

B) He would argue that there are no politically

meaningful links between the dead, the living,

and the unborn.

C) He would question the possibility that significant

changes to a political system could be

Which choice best states the relationship between the

accomplished within a single generation.

two passages?

D) He would point out that we cannot know what

A) Passage 2 challenges the primary argument of

judgments the dead would make about

Passage 1.

contemporary issues.

B) Passage 2 advocates an alternative approach to a

problem discussed in Passage 1.

C) Passage 2 provides further evidence to support

an idea introduced in Passage 1.

Which choice provides the best evidence for the

D) Passage 2 exemplifies an attitude promoted in

answer to the previous question?

Passage 1.

A) Lines 41-43 (“Every . . . it”)

B) Lines 43-45 (“The vanity . . . tyrannies”)

C) Lines 56-58 (“It is . . . accommodated”)

The main purpose of both passages is to

D) Lines 67-72 (“What . . . time”)

A) suggest a way to resolve a particular political

struggle.

B) discuss the relationship between people and their

government.

Which choice best describes how Burke would most

likely have reacted to Paine’s remarks in the final

C) evaluate the consequences of rapid political

paragraph of Passage 2?

change.

A) With approval, because adapting to new events

D) describe the duties that governments have to

may enhance existing partnerships.

their citizens.

B) With resignation, because changing

circumstances are an inevitable aspect of life.

C) With skepticism, because Paine does not

substantiate his claim with examples of

governments changed for the better.

D) With disapproval, because changing conditions

are insufficient justification for changing the

form of government.

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CONTINUE

Questions 42-52 are based on the following

volcano. They examined 130 outcrops on the flanks

passage and supplementary material.

of the volcano, exposing sequences of pumice—ash

hardened into rock—and other pyroclastic material.

This passage is adapted from Carolyn Gramling, “Source of

The volume of ash deposited, and the estimated

height of the eruption plume (43 kilometers above

American Association for the Advancement of Science.

sea level) put the eruption’s magnitude at a

About 750 years ago, a powerful volcano erupted

minimum of 7 on the volcanic explosivity index

somewhere on Earth, kicking off a centuries-long

(which has a scale of 1 to 8)—making it one of the

cold snap known as the Little Ice Age. Identifying the

largest known in the Holocene.

volcano responsible has been tricky.

Line

The team also performed radiocarbon analyses on

That a powerful volcano erupted somewhere in

carbonized tree trunks and branches buried within

the world, sometime in the Middle Ages, is written in

the pyroclastic deposits to confirm the date of the

polar ice cores in the form of layers of sulfate

eruption; it could not, they concluded, have

deposits and tiny shards of volcanic glass. These

happened before 1257 C.E., and certainly happened

cores suggest that the amount of sulfur the mystery

in the 13th century.

volcano sent into the stratosphere put it firmly

It’s not a total surprise that an Indonesian volcano

among the ranks of the strongest climate-perturbing

might be the source of the eruption, Miller says. “An

eruptions of the current geological epoch, the

equatorial eruption is more consistent with the

Holocene, a period that stretches from 10,000 years

apparent climate impacts.” And, he adds, with sulfate

ago to the present. A haze of stratospheric sulfur

appearing in both polar ice caps—Arctic and

cools the climate by reflecting solar energy back into

Antarctic—there is “a strong consensus” that this

space.

also supports an equatorial source.

In 2012, a team of scientists led by geochemist

Another possible candidate—both in terms of

Gifford Miller strengthened the link between the

timing and geographical location—is Ecuador’s

mystery eruption and the onset of the Little Ice Age

Quilotoa, estimated to have last erupted between

by using radiocarbon dating of dead plant material

1147 and 1320 C.E. But when Lavigne’s team

from beneath the ice caps on Baffin Island and

examined shards of volcanic glass from this volcano,

Iceland, as well as ice and sediment core data, to

they found that they didn’t match the chemical

determine that the cold summers and ice growth

composition of the glass found in polar ice cores,

began abruptly between 1275 and 1300 C.E. (and

whereas the Samalas glass is a much closer match.

became intensified between 1430 and 1455 C.E.).

That, they suggest, further strengthens the case that

Such a sudden onset pointed to a huge volcanic

Samalas was responsible for the medieval “year

eruption injecting sulfur into the stratosphere and

without summer” in 1258 C.E.

starting the cooling. Subsequent, unusually large and

frequent eruptions of other volcanoes, as well as

sea-ice/ocean feedbacks persisting long after the

aerosols have been removed from the atmosphere,

may have prolonged the cooling through the 1700s.

Volcanologist Franck Lavigne and colleagues now

think they’ve identified the volcano in question:

Indonesia’s Samalas. One line of evidence, they note,

is historical records. According to Babad Lombok,

records of the island written on palm leaves in Old

Javanese, Samalas erupted catastrophically before the

end of the 13th century, devastating surrounding

villages—including Lombok’s capital at the time,

Pamatan—with ash and fast-moving sweeps of hot

rock and gas called pyroclastic flows.

The researchers then began to reconstruct the

formation of the large, 800-meter-deep caldera [a

basin-shaped volcanic crater] that now sits atop the

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

CONTINUE

Estimated Temperature in Central England

1000 CE to 2000 CE

Which choice provides the best evidence for the

+0.5

answer to the previous question?

Little Ice Age

A) Lines 17-25 (“In 2012 . . . 1455 C.E.”)

B) Lines 43-46 (“The researchers . . . atop the

volcano”)

Medieval

-0.5

Warm Period

C) Lines 46-48 (“They examined . . . material”)

D) Lines 55-60 (“The team . . . 13th century”)

-1.0

The author uses the phrase “is written in” (line 6)

Year

most likely to

A) demonstrate the concept of the hands-on nature

*Variation from the 1961-1990 average temperature, in °C,

of the work done by scientists.

represented at 0.

B) highlight the fact that scientists often write about

Adapted from John P. Rafferty, “Little Ice Age.” Originally published

their discoveries.

C) underscore the sense of importance that

scientists have regarding their work.

D) reinforce the idea that the evidence is there and

can be interpreted by scientists.

The main purpose of the passage is to

A) describe periods in Earth’s recent geologic

history.

Where does the author indicate the medieval

B) explain the methods scientists use in

volcanic eruption most probably was located?

radiocarbon analysis.

A) Near the equator, in Indonesia

C) describe evidence linking the volcano Samalas to

B) In the Arctic region

the Little Ice Age.

C) In the Antarctic region

D) explain how volcanic glass forms during volcanic

eruptions.

D) Near the equator, in Ecuador

Over the course of the passage, the focus shifts from

Which choice provides the best evidence for the

answer to the previous question?

A) a criticism of a scientific model to a new theory.

A) Lines 1-3 (“About 750 . . . Ice Age”)

B) a description of a recorded event to its likely

cause.

B) Lines 26-28 (“Such a . . . the cooling”)

C) the use of ice core samples to a new method of

C) Lines 49-54 (“The volume . . . the Holocene”)

measuring sulfates.

D) Lines 61-64 (“It’s not . . . climate impacts”)

D) the use of radiocarbon dating to an examination

of volcanic glass.

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CONTINUE

As used in line 68, the phrase “Another possible

The passage and the figure are in agreement that the

candidate” implies that

onset of the Little Ice Age began

A) powerful volcanic eruptions occur frequently.

A) around 1150 CE.

B) the effects of volcanic eruptions can last for

B) just before 1300 CE.

centuries.

C) just before 1500 CE.

C) scientists know of other volcanoes that erupted

D) around 1650 CE.

during the Middle Ages.

D) other volcanoes have calderas that are very large.

What statement is best supported by the data

presented in the figure?

Which choice best supports the claim that Quilotoa

A) The greatest cooling during the Little Ice Age

was not responsible for the Little Ice Age?

occurred hundreds of years after the temperature

A) Lines 3-4 (“Identifying . . . tricky”)

peaks of the Medieval Warm Period.

B) Lines 26-28 (“Such a . . . cooling”)

B) The sharp decline in temperature supports the

hypothesis of an equatorial volcanic eruption in

C) Lines 43-46 (“The researchers . . . atop the

the Middle Ages.

volcano”)

C) Pyroclastic flows from volcanic eruptions

D) Lines 71-75 (“But . . . closer match”)

continued for hundreds of years after the

eruptions had ended.

D) Radiocarbon analysis is the best tool scientists

have to determine the temperature variations

According to the data in the figure, the greatest

after volcanic eruptions.

below-average temperature variation occurred

around what year?

1200 CE

1375 CE

1675 CE

D) 1750 CE

STOP

If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.

Do not turn to any other section.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

Writing and Language Test

35 MINUTES, 44 QUESTIONS

Turn to Section 2 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

DIRECTIONS

Each passage below is accompanied by a number of questions. For some questions, you

will consider how the passage might be revised to improve the expression of ideas. For

other questions, you will consider how the passage might be edited to correct errors in

sentence structure, usage, or punctuation. A passage or a question may be accompanied by

one or more graphics (such as a table or graph) that you will consider as you make revising

and editing decisions.

Some questions will direct you to an underlined portion of a passage. Other questions will

direct you to a location in a passage or ask you to think about the passage as a whole.

After reading each passage, choose the answer to each question that most effectively

improves the quality of writing in the passage or that makes the passage conform to the

conventions of standard written English. Many questions include a “NO CHANGE” option.

Choose that option if you think the best choice is to leave the relevant portion of the

passage as it is.

Questions 1-11 are based on the following passage.

A) NO CHANGE

Ghost Mural

B) which he accordingly titled

C) accordingly he titled it

In 1932 the well-known Mexican muralist David

D) it was titled accordingly

Alfaro Siqueiros was commissioned to paint a mural on

the second-story exterior wall of a historic building in

downtown Los Angeles. Siqueiros was asked to celebrate

A) NO CHANGE

tropical America in his work,

he accordingly titled it

B) However,

C) Although,

“América Tropical.” He painted the mural’s first two

D) Moreover,

sections, featuring images of a tropical rainforest and a

Maya pyramid, during the day.

Also, to avoid

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CONTINUE

scrutiny, Siqueiros painted the final section of the mural,

A) NO CHANGE

the

centerpiece at night.

B) centerpiece,

The reason for Siqueiros’s secrecy became clear

C) centerpiece;

when the mural was

confided. The centerpiece of the

D) centerpiece—

work was dominated by images of native people being

oppressed and

including an eagle symbolizing the

United States. Siqueiros’s political message did not please

Which choice best connects the sentence with the

previous paragraph?

the wealthy citizens who had commissioned his work.

NO CHANGE

They eventually ordered the mural to be literally

All three sections of the mural were on display

whitewashed, or painted over with white paint.

The community turned out in large numbers

Siqueiros was informed of people’s reactions

However, by the 1970s, the white paint had begun to

fade, and the bright colors of the mural were beginning to

show through. At the same time, a social and civil rights

NO CHANGE

movement for Mexican Americans was working to raise

promulgated.

awareness of Mexican American cultural identity. Artists

imparted.

unveiled.

associated with

this began to rediscover and promote

the work of the Mexican muralists, particularly Siqueiros.

To them, “América Tropical” was an example of how art

NO CHANGE

in public spaces could be used to celebrate Mexican

included

American heritage while at the same time making a

includes

had included

political statement. Inspired by Siqueiros and the other

muralists, this new generation of artists strove to emulate

the old mural masters.

NO CHANGE

them

this movement

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CONTINUE

The result was an explosion of mural painting

that spread throughout California and the southwestern

Which choice most effectively combines the

underlined sentences?

United States in the 1970s. It was the Chicano mural

The result was an explosion, the Chicano mural

movement. Hundreds of large, colorful new murals

movement, of mural painting that spread

throughout California and the southwestern

depicting elements of Mexican American life and history

United States in the 1970s.

appeared during this period, some in designated cultural

The result was the Chicano mural movement, an

explosion of mural painting that spread

locations but many more in abandoned lots, on unused

throughout California and the southwestern

United States in the 1970s.

buildings, or

painted on infrastructure such as

The explosion of mural painting that spread

highways and bridges. Many of these murals can still be

throughout California and the southwestern

United States in the 1970s was the resulting

seen today, although some have not been well

Chicano mural movement.

maintained.

An explosion of mural painting resulted and it

spread throughout California and the

southwestern United States in the 1970s; it was

the Chicano mural movement.

NO CHANGE

they were painted on

DELETE the underlined portion.

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CONTINUE

Fortunately, a new group of artists has discovered the

murals, and efforts are underway to clean, restore, and

Which choice most effectively sets up the

information that follows?

repaint them. Once again, Siqueiros’s “América Tropical”

A) NO CHANGE

10 leading the way. After a lengthy and complex

B) being cleaned and restored.

restoration process, this powerful work is now a tourist

C) at risk of destruction.

D) awaiting its moment of appreciation.

attraction, complete with a visitor center and a rooftop

viewing platform. 11 Advocates hope that Siqueiros’s

mural will once more serve as an inspiration, this time

At this point, the writer is considering adding the

inspiring viewers to save and restore an important

following sentence.

cultural and artistic legacy.

When it was painted in 1932, Siqueiros’s mural

was considered offensive, but now it is

acclaimed.

Should the writer make this addition here?

A) Yes, because it provides historical context for the

changes discussed in the passage.

B) Yes, because it provides a useful reminder of

how people once viewed Siqueiros’s work.

C) No, because it unnecessarily repeats information

from earlier in the passage.

D) No, because it makes a claim about Siqueiros’s

work that is not supported by the passage.

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CONTINUE

Questions 12-22 are based on the following passage.

NO CHANGE

The Hype of Healthier Organic Food

the purchase of

purchasing

Some people buy organic food because they believe

DELETE the underlined portion.

organically grown crops are more nutritious and safer for

consumption than 12 the people who purchase their

conventionally grown counterparts, which are usually

NO CHANGE

produced with pesticides and synthetic fertilizers. In the

these consumers spend

having spent

name of health, 13 spending $1.60 for every dollar they

to spend

would have spent on food that is 14 grown in a manner

that is considered conventional. Scientific evidence,

15 therefore, suggests that consumers do not reap

NO CHANGE

significant benefits, in terms of either nutritional value or

grown with conventional methods, using

pesticides and synthetic fertilizers.

safety, from organic food.

conventionally and therefore not organically

grown.

conventionally grown.

NO CHANGE

furthermore,

however,

subsequently,

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CONTINUE

Although advocates of organic food 16 preserve that

organic produce is healthier than conventionally grown

A) NO CHANGE

B) carry on

produce because it has more vitamins and minerals, this

C) maintain

assertion is not supported by scientific research. 17 For

D) sustain

instance, one review published in The American Journal

of Clinical Nutrition provided analysis of the results of

comparative studies conducted over a span of 50 years;

A) NO CHANGE

B) However,

researchers consistently found no evidence that organic

C) In addition,

crops are more nutritious than conventionally grown

D) Likewise,

ones in terms of their vitamin and mineral content. 18

Similarly, Stanford University researchers who examined

almost 250 studies comparing the nutritional content of

At this point, the writer is considering adding the

following sentence.

different kinds of organic foods with that of their

The United States Department of Agriculture

nonorganic counterparts found very little difference

(USDA) reports that organic agricultural

products are now available in approximately

between the two.

20,000 markets specializing in natural foods.

Should the writer make this addition here?

A) Yes, because it adds a relevant research finding

from a government agency.

B) Yes, because it supports the passage’s argument

that organic food is less nutritious than

conventionally grown food.

C) No, because it is not relevant to the paragraph’s

discussion of scientific evidence.

D) No, because it introduces a term that has not

been defined in the passage.

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CONTINUE

Evidence also undermines the claim that organic

food is safer to eat. While researchers have found lower

A) NO CHANGE

B) is having

levels of pesticide residue in organic produce than in

C) has had

nonorganic produce, the pesticide residue detected in

D) has

conventional produce falls within acceptable safety limits.

According to such organizations as the US

Environmental Protection Agency, the minute amounts

At this point, the writer wants to further reinforce

the paragraph’s claim about the safety of nonorganic

of residue falling within such limits 19 have no negative

food. Which choice most effectively accomplishes

this goal?

impact on human health. 20

A) To be labeled organic, a product must meet

certain standards determined and monitored by

the US Department of Agriculture.

B) Organic food, however, is regulated to eliminate

artificial ingredients that include certain types of

preservatives, sweeteners, colorings, and flavors.

C) Moreover, consumers who are concerned about

ingesting pesticide residue can eliminate much

of it by simply washing or peeling produce

before eating it.

D) In fact, the Environmental Protection Agency

estimates that about one-fifth of the pesticides

used worldwide are applied to crops in the

United States.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

CONTINUE

Based on scientific evidence, organic food offers

A) NO CHANGE

neither significant nutritional nor safety benefits for

B) there are

consumers. Proponents of organic food, of course, are

C) there is

quick to add that 21 their are numerous other reasons to

D) their is

buy organic 22 food, such as, a desire to protect the

environment from potentially damaging pesticides or a

A) NO CHANGE

preference for the taste of organically grown foods.

B) food such as:

Research regarding these issues is less conclusive than the

C) food such as,

findings regarding nutritional content and pesticide

D) food, such as

residue safety limits. What is clear, though, is this: if a

consumer’s goal is to buy the healthiest and safest food to

eat, the increased cost of organic food is a waste of

money.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

CONTINUE

Questions 23-33 are based on the following passage

and supplementary material.

The writer wants to convey an attitude of genuine

interest and to avoid the appearance of mockery.

Which choice best accomplishes this goal?

You Are Where You Say

A) NO CHANGE

Research on regional variations in English-language

B) galvanizing

use has not only yielded answers to such 23 life-altering

C) intriguing

questions as how people in different parts of the

D) weird

United States refer to carbonated beverages (“soda”?

“pop”? “coke”?) 24 it also illustrates how technology can

A) NO CHANGE

change the very nature of research. While traditional,

B) and also illustrates

human-intensive data collection 25 has all but

C) but also illustrates

disappeared in language studies, the explosion of social

D) illustrating

media has opened new avenues for investigation.

[1] Perhaps the epitome of traditional methodology

Which choice most effectively sets up the contrast in

is the Dictionary of American Regional English,

the sentence and is consistent with the information

colloquially known as DARE. [2] Its fifth and final

in the rest of the passage?

A) NO CHANGE

alphabetical volume—ending with “zydeco”—released in

B) still has an important place

2012, the dictionary represents decades of arduous work.

C) remains the only option

[3] Over a six-year period from 1965 to 1970, university

D) yields questionable results

graduate students conducted interviews in more than a

thousand communities across the nation. [4] Their goal

was to determine what names people used for such

everyday objects and concepts as a submarine sandwich

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CONTINUE

(a “hero” in New York City but a “dagwood” in many

parts of Minnesota, Iowa, and Colorado) and a heavy

A) NO CHANGE

B) scholars, and these scholars

rainstorm (variously a “gully washer,” “pour-down,” or

C) scholars, but scholars

“stump mover”). [5] The work that dictionary founder

D) scholars, who

Frederic G. Cassidy had expected to be finished by 1976

was not, in fact, completed in his lifetime. [6] The wait

did not dampen enthusiasm among 26 scholars.

To improve the cohesion and flow of this paragraph,

the writer wants to add the following sentence.

Scholars consider the work a signal achievement in

Data gathering proved to be the quick part of the

linguistics.

project.

Not all research into regional English varieties

The sentence would most logically be placed after

28 requires such time, effort, and resources, however.

sentence 2.

sentence 3.

Today’s researchers have found that the veritable army of

sentence 4.

trained volunteers traveling the country conducting

sentence 5.

face-to-face interviews can sometimes be 29 replaced by

another army the vast array of individuals volunteering

details about their lives—and, inadvertently, their

NO CHANGE

are requiring

language—through social media. Brice Russ of Ohio State

have required

University, for example, has employed software to sort

require

through postings on one social media 30 cite in search

of particular words and phrases of interest as well as the

location from which users are posting. From these data,

NO CHANGE

replaced—by another army,

replaced by another army;

replaced by another army:

NO CHANGE

site in search of

sight in search for

cite in search for

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CONTINUE

he was able, among other things, to confirm regional

variations in people’s terms for soft drinks. As the map

The writer wants the information in the passage

to correspond as closely as possible with the

shows, “soda” is commonly heard in the middle and

information in the map. Given that goal and

assuming that the rest of the previous sentence

western portions of the United States; “pop” is frequently

would remain unchanged, in which sequence

used in many southern states; and “coke” is predominant

should the three terms for soft drinks be discussed?

A) NO CHANGE

in the northeastern and southwest regions but used

“pop,” “soda,” “coke”

elsewhere as well. 31 As interesting as Russ’s findings

“pop,” “coke,” “soda”

are, though, 32 they’re true value lies in their reminder

D) “soda,” “coke,” “pop”

that the Internet is not merely a sophisticated tool for

collecting data but is also 33 itself a rich source of data.

A) NO CHANGE

Sof Drink Descriptions by State

B) their true value lies in their

Highest Percentage Reported

C) there true value lies in they’re

D) their true value lies in there

Which choice most effectively concludes the

sentence and paragraph?

A) NO CHANGE

B) where we can learn what terms people use

pop

to refer to soft drinks.

coke

C) a useful way to stay connected to friends,

soda

family, and colleagues.

Adapted from Jennifer M. Smith, Department of Geography, The

D) helpful to researchers.

Pennsylvania State University, with data from www.popvssoda.com

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CONTINUE

Questions 34-44 are based on the following passage.

NO CHANGE

Creating Worlds: A Career in Game Design

has been

are

If you love video games and have thought about how

was

the games you play might be changed or improved, or if

you’ve imagined creating a video game of your own, you

might want to consider a career as a video game designer.

NO CHANGE

There 34 were a number of steps you can take to

elements: the settings, characters, and plots that

make each game unique—

determine whether game design is the right field for you

elements—the settings, characters, and plots that

and, if it is, to prepare yourself for such a career.

make each game unique—

elements; the settings, characters, and plots that

Before making the choice, you should have some

make each game unique;

sense of what a video game designer does. Every video

game, whether for a console, computer, or mobile device,

starts with a concept that originates in the mind of a

NO CHANGE

job, however. No

designer. The designer envisions the game’s fundamental

job—however, no

35 elements: the settings, characters, and plots that make

job however no

each game unique, and is thus a primary creative force

behind a video game.

Conceptualizing a game is only the beginning of a

At this point, the writer is considering adding the

following sentence.

video game designer’s 36 job, however, no matter how

Successful communication is essential if a

good a concept is, it will never be translated into a video

designer’s idea is to become a reality.

game unless it is communicated effectively to all the other

Should the writer make this addition here?

members of the video game development team. 37 A

A) Yes, because it supports the conclusion drawn in

the following sentence.

designer must generate extensive documentation and

B) Yes, because it illustrates a general principle

discussed in the paragraph.

C) No, because it distracts from the focus of the

paragraph by introducing irrelevant material.

D) No, because it merely reformulates the thought

expressed in the preceding sentence.

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CONTINUE

38 explain his or her ideas clearly in order to ensure that

the programmers, artists, and others on the team all share

Which choice results in a sentence that best supports

the point developed in this paragraph?

the same vision. 39 Likewise, anyone considering a

NO CHANGE

career as a video game designer must be 40 skilled

possess a vivid imagination

writers and speakers. In addition, because video game

assess his or her motivations carefully

learn to accept constructive criticism

development is a collaborative effort and because the

development of any one game may take months or even

years, a designer must be an effective team player as well

NO CHANGE

as detail oriented.

Nevertheless,

[1] A basic understanding of computer programming

Consequently,

However,

is essential. [2] In fact, many designers 41 initially begin

their pursuits as programmers. [3] Consider taking some

general computer science courses as well as courses in

NO CHANGE

artificial intelligence and graphics in order to increase

a skilled writer and speaker.

your understanding of the technical challenges involved

skilled both as writers and speakers.

both skilled writers and speakers.

in developing a video game. [4] Courses in psychology

and human behavior may help you develop 42 emphatic

collaboration skills, while courses in the humanities, such

NO CHANGE

as in literature and film, should give you the background

start to begin their work

necessary to develop effective narrative structures. [5] A

initiate their progression

begin their careers

NO CHANGE

paramount

eminent

important

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CONTINUE

designer also needs careful educational preparation.

[6] Finally, because a designer should understand the

A) NO CHANGE

B) the choice of video game design

business aspects of the video game industry, such as

C) you should choose video game design because it

budgeting and marketing, you may want to consider

D) choosing to design video games

taking some business courses. [7] Although demanding

and deadline driven, 43 video game design can be a

lucrative and rewarding field for people who love gaming

To make this paragraph most logical, sentence 5

should be

and have prepared themselves with the necessary skills

A) placed where it is now.

and knowledge. 44

B) placed before sentence 1.

C) placed after sentence 3.

D) DELETED from the paragraph.

STOP

If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.

Do not turn to any other section.

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CONTINUE

Math Test - No Calculator

25 MINUTES, 20 QUESTIONS

Turn to Section 3 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

For questions 1-15, solve each problem, choose the best answer from the choices

provided, and fill in the corresponding circle on your answer sheet. For questions 16-20,

solve the problem and enter your answer in the grid on the answer sheet. Please refer to

the directions before question 16 on how to enter your answers in the grid. You may use

any available space in your test booklet for scratch work.

1. The use of a calculator is not permitted.

2. All variables and expressions used represent real numbers unless otherwise indicated.

3. Figures provided in this test are drawn to scale unless otherwise indicated.

4. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.

5. Unless otherwise indicated, the domain of a given function f is the set of all real numbers x for

which f (x) is a real number.

ℓ

45°

s√2

60°

x s

30°

45°

x√3

A = pr

A = ℓw

A = bh

c² = a² + b²

Special Right Triangles

C = 2pr

ℓ

V = ℓwh

V = pr²h

V = pr³4

V = pr²h1

V = ℓwh1

The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360.

The number of radians of arc in a circle is 2p.

The sum of the measures in degrees of the angles of a triangle is 180.

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CONTINUE

3(2x + 1)(4x + 1)

While preparing to run a marathon, Amelia created a

training schedule in which the distance of her longest

Which of the following is equivalent to the

run every week increased by a constant amount. If

expression above?

Amelia’s training schedule requires that her longest

run in week 4 is a distance of 8 miles and her longest

A) 45x

run in week 16 is a distance of 26 miles, which of the

24x

following best describes how the distance Amelia

runs changes between week 4 and week 16 of her

24x

+ 18x + 3

training schedule?

D) 18x

Amelia increases the distance of her longest run

by 0.5 miles each week.

Amelia increases the distance of her longest run

by 2 miles each week.

Amelia increases the distance of her longest run

by 2 miles every 3 weeks.

Amelia increases the distance of her longest run

by 1.5 miles each week.

a−b

, which of the following must also be

true?

=−⁴

a+b

a−2b

=−¹¹

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

CONTINUE

Ken and Paul each ordered a sandwich at a

8−

restaurant. The price of Ken’s sandwich was

3−2i

x dollars, and the price of Paul’s sandwich was $1

more than the price of Ken’s sandwich. If Ken and

If the expression above is rewritten in the form

Paul split the cost of the sandwiches evenly and each

a + bi, where a and b are real numbers, what is the

paid a 20% tip, which of the following expressions

value of a ? (Note: i =

−1)

represents the amount, in dollars, each of them paid?

(Assume there is no sales tax.)

0.2x + 0.2

0.5x + 0.1

1.2x + 0.6

2.4x + 1.2

y = f (x)

x2− kx= 2p

In the quadratic equation above, k and p are

(-k, 0)

(k, 0)

constants. What are the solutions for x ?

y = g(x)

+2p

x= k

4 ±

+ 32p

The functions f and g, defined by f (x) = 8x

−

x= k

4 ±

and g(x) = −8x

+2, are graphed in the xy-plane

+2p

above. The graphs of f and g intersect at the points

x= k

2 ±

,0) and (−k,0). What is the value of k ?

+ 32p

x= k

2 ±

D) 2

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CONTINUE

Answer:

Answer: 2.5

DIRECTIONS

Write

For questions 16 -20, solve the problem and

answer

in boxes.

enter your answer in the grid, as described

Fraction

line

below, on the answer sheet.

Decimal

point

1. Although not required, it is suggested that

you write your answer in the boxes at the top

of the columns to help you fill in the circles

Grid in

result.

accurately. You will receive credit only if the

circles are filled in correctly.

2. Mark no more than one circle in any column.

3. No question has a negative answer.

4. Some problems may have more than one

correct answer. In such cases, grid only one

answer.

5. Mixed numbers such as

must be gridded

Acceptable ways to grid are:

as 3.5 or 7/2. (If

is entered into the

grid, it will be interpreted as

, not

6. Decimal answers: If you obtain a decimal

answer with more digits than the grid can

accommodate, it may be either rounded or

truncated, but it must fill the entire grid.

Answer: 201 - either position is correct

NOTE: You

may start your

answers in any

column, space

permitting.

Columns you

don’t need to

use should be

left blank.

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CONTINUE

Math Test - Calculator

55 MINUTES, 38 QUESTIONS

Turn to Section 4 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

For questions 1-30, solve each problem, choose the best answer from the choices

provided, and fill in the corresponding circle on your answer sheet. For questions 31-38,

solve the problem and enter your answer in the grid on the answer sheet. Please refer to

the directions before question 31 on how to enter your answers in the grid. You may use

any available space in your test booklet for scratch work.

1. The use of a calculator is permitted.

2. All variables and expressions used represent real numbers unless otherwise indicated.

3. Figures provided in this test are drawn to scale unless otherwise indicated.

4. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.

5. Unless otherwise indicated, the domain of a given function f is the set of all real numbers x for

which f (x) is a real number.

ℓ

45°

s√2

60°

x s

30°

45°

x√3

A = pr

A = ℓw

A = bh

c² = a² + b²

Special Right Triangles

C = 2pr

ℓ

V = ℓwh

V = pr²h

V = pr³4

V = pr²h1

V = ℓwh1

The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360.

The number of radians of arc in a circle is 2p.

The sum of the measures in degrees of the angles of a triangle is 180.

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CONTINUE

The monthly membership fee for an online television

If a 3-pound pizza is sliced in half and each half is

and movie service is $9.80. The cost of viewing

sliced into thirds, what is the weight, in ounces, of

television shows online is included in the

each of the slices? (1 pound = 16 ounces)

membership fee, but there is an additional fee

of $1.50 to rent each movie online. For one month,

Jill’s membership and movie rental fees were $12.80.

How many movies did Jill rent online that month?

D) 16

D) 4

Nick surveyed a random sample of the freshman

class of his high school to determine whether the Fall

Festival should be held in October or November. Of

the 90 students surveyed, 25.6% preferred October.

One of the requirements for becoming a court

Based on this information, about how many students

reporter is the ability to type 225 words per minute.

in the entire 225-person class would be expected to

Donald can currently type 180 words per minute,

prefer having the Fall Festival in October?

and believes that with practice he can increase his

typing speed by 5 words per minute each month.

Which of the following represents the number of

words per minute that Donald believes he will be able

to type m months from now?

D) 80

A) 5 + 180m

225 + 5m

C) 180 + 5m

D) 180 − 5m

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CONTINUE

The density of an object is equal to the mass of the

Movies with Greatest Ticket Sales in 2012

object divided by the volume of the object. What is

the volume, in milliliters, of an object with a mass of

Type of movie

MPAA

24 grams and a density of 3 grams per milliliter?

rating

Action Animated Comedy Drama

Total

0.125

PG-13

D) 72

Total

The table above represents the 50 movies that had

the greatest ticket sales in 2012, categorized by movie

type and Motion Picture Association of America

(MPAA) rating. What proportion of the movies are

comedies with a PG-13 rating?

Last week Raul worked 11 more hours than

Angelica. If they worked a combined total of

59 hours, how many hours did Angelica work last

week?

D) 48

Line A in the xy-plane contains points from each of

Quadrants II, III, and IV, but no points from

Quadrant I. Which of the following must be true?

A) The slope of line A is undefined.

B) The slope of line A is zero.

C) The slope of line A is positive.

D) The slope of line A is negative.

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CONTINUE

Number of Registered Voters

in the United States in 2012, in Tousands

Age, in years

75 and

Region

18 to 24

25 to 44

45 to 64

65 to 74

Total

older

Northeast

2,713

8,159

10,986

3,342

2,775

27,975

Midwest

3,453

11,237

13,865

4,221

3,350

36,126

South

5,210

18,072

21,346

7,272

4,969

56,869

West

3,390

10,428

11,598

3,785

2,986

32,187

Total

14,766

47,896

57,795

18,620

14,080

153,157

The table above shows the number of registered voters in 2012, in thousands, in four geographic regions and five age

groups. Based on the table, if a registered voter who was 18 to 44 years old in 2012 is chosen at random, which of the

following is closest to the probability that the registered voter was from the Midwest region?

0.10

0.25

0.40

D) 0.75

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CONTINUE

▼

Questions 10 and 11 refer to the following

Of the labeled points, which represents the animal

information.

for which the ratio of life expectancy to gestation

period is greatest?

Gestation Period versus Life Expectancy

A) A

B) B

C) C

D) D

▲

60 65

Gestation period (days)

A curator at a wildlife society created the scatterplot

above to examine the relationship between the gestation

period and life expectancy of 10 species of animals.

In the xy-plane, the graph of function f has

x-intercepts at −3, −1, and 1. Which of the

following could define f ?

What is the life expectancy, in years, of the animal

that has the longest gestation period?

A) f (x) = (x − 3)(x − 1)(x + 1)

B) f (x) = (x − 3)(x − 1)²

C) f (x) = (x − 1)(x + 1)(x + 3)

D) f (x) = (x + 1)2(x + 3)

D) 10

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CONTINUE

The population of mosquitoes in a swamp is

⎛

⎞

estimated over the course of twenty weeks, as shown

1,000⎜1 +

⎟

⎝

1,200

⎟

in the table.

The expression above gives the amount of money, in

Time (weeks)

Population

dollars, generated in a year by a $1,000 deposit in a

bank account that pays an annual interest rate of r %,

100

compounded monthly. Which of the following

1,000

expressions shows how much additional money is

generated at an interest rate of 5% than at an interest

10,000

rate of 3% ?

100,000

1,000,000

⎛

5−3

⎞

1,000⎜1+

⎟

⎜

⎟

⎝

1,200⎟

Which of the following best describes the

relationship between time and the estimated

population of mosquitoes during the twenty weeks?

⎛

⎞

⎜

⎟

A) Increasing linear

⎜

⎟

⎜

⎟

1,000⎜1 +

⎟

B) Decreasing linear

⎜

⎟

⎜

1,200⎟

⎜

⎟

C) Exponential growth

⎜

⎟

D) Exponential decay

⎛

⎞

1,000⎜1 +

⎟

⎝

1,200⎠

⎛

⎞

1,000⎜1 +

⎟

⎝

1,200

⎟

⎛

⎞

⎛

⎞

D) 1,000⎜1 +

⎟

− 1,000⎜1 +

⎟

⎝

1,200⎟

⎝

1,200⎟

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CONTINUE

▼

Questions 16 and 17 refer to the following

Which of the following scatterplots shows a

information.

relationship that is appropriately modeled with the

Mr. Martinson is building a concrete patio in his

backyard and deciding where to buy the materials and

equation

y = ax^b, where a is positive and b is

rent the tools needed for the project. The table below

negative?

shows the materials’ cost and daily rental costs for three

different stores.

Rental cost of

Materials’

Rental cost of

concrete

Store

Cost, M

wheelbarrow, W

mixer, K

(dollars)

(dollars per day)

750

600

700

The total cost, y, for buying the materials and renting the

tools in terms of the number of days, x, is given by

y = M + (W + K)x.

For what number of days, x, will the total cost of

buying the materials and renting the tools from

Store B be less than or equal to the total cost of

buying the materials and renting the tools from

Store A ?

A) x ≤ 6

B) x ≥ 6

D) y

C) x ≤ 7.3

D) x ≥ 7.3

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CONTINUE

If the relationship between the total cost, y, of buying

Jim has identical drinking glasses each in the shape of

the materials and renting the tools at Store C and the

a right circular cylinder with internal diameter of

number of days, x, for which the tools are rented is

3 inches. He pours milk from a gallon jug into each

graphed in the xy-plane, what does the slope of the

glass until it is full. If the height of milk in each glass

line represent?

is about 6 inches, what is the largest number of full

milk glasses that he can pour from one gallon of

A) The total cost of the project

milk? (Note: There are 231 cubic inches in 1 gallon.)

B) The total cost of the materials

C) The total daily cost of the project

D) The total daily rental costs of the tools

D) 6

▲

If 3p − 2 ≥ 1, what is the least possible value of

+2 ?

D) 1

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CONTINUE

▼

Questions 21 and 22 refer to the following

The mass of living organisms in a lake is defined to

information.

be the biomass of the lake. If the biomass in a lake

doubles each year, which of the following graphs

Renewable Energy Consumption

could model the biomass in the lake as a function of

3.00

2000

time? (Note: In each graph below, O represents

2010

2.50

(0, 0).)

2.00

1.50

1.00

0.50

Time (years)

0.00

Energy source

The bar graph above shows renewable energy

Time (years)

consumption in quadrillions of British thermal units

(Btu) in the United States, by energy source, for several

energy sources in the years 2000 and 2010.

In a scatterplot of this data, where renewable energy

consumption in the year 2000 is plotted along the

Time (years)

x-axis and renewable energy consumption in the year

2010 is plotted along the y-axis for each of the given

energy sources, how many data points would be

above the line y = x ?

Time (years)

D) 4

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CONTINUE

Of the following, which best approximates the

The tables below give the distribution of high

percent decrease in consumption of wood power in

temperatures in degrees Fahrenheit (°F) for City A

the United States from 2000 to

2010

and City B over the same 21 days in March.

City A

11%

Temperature (°F)

Frequency

21%

26%

▲

City B

Temperature (°F)

Frequency

Which of the following is true about the data shown

for these 21 days?

A) The standard deviation of temperatures in

City A is larger.

B) The standard deviation of temperatures in

City B is larger.

C) The standard deviation of temperatures in

City A is the same as that of City B.

D) The standard deviation of temperatures in these

cities cannot be calculated with the data

provided.

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CONTINUE

average housing cost for the city

The relative housing cost for a US city is defined to be the ratio

expressed as a

national average housing cost

percent.

450

400

350

300

250

200

150

100

Population density

(people/square mile land area)

The scatterplot above shows the relative housing cost and the population density for several large US cities in the year

2005. The line of best fit is also shown and has equation y = 0.0125x + 61. Which of the following best explains how

the number 61 in the equation relates to the scatterplot?

A) In 2005, the lowest housing cost in the United States was about $61 per month.

B) In 2005, the lowest housing cost in the United States was about 61% of the highest housing cost.

C) In 2005, even in cities with low population densities, housing costs were never below 61% of the national average.

D) In 2005, even in cities with low population densities, housing costs were likely at least 61% of the national average.

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CONTINUE

f (x) = (x + 6)(x − 4)

Which of the following is an equivalent form of the

function f above in which the minimum value of f

appears as a constant or coefficient?

A) f (x) = x

− 24

B) f (x) = x

+ 2x − 24

–5

-4

-3

-2

-1 -1

C) f (x) = (x − 1)

− 21

–2

D) f (x) = (x + 1)

− 25

-3

–4

-5

The function f (x) = x

−x2−x−

is graphed in

the xy-plane above. If k is a constant such that the

equation f (x) = k has three real solutions, which of

If x is the average (arithmetic mean) of m and 9,

y is the average of 2m and 15, and z is the average

the following could be the value of k ?

of 3m and 18, what is the average of x, y, and z in

terms of m ?

A) m + 6

B) m + 7

−2

2m + 14

D) −3

D) 3m + 21

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CONTINUE

Answer:

Answer: 2.5

DIRECTIONS

Write

For questions 31-38, solve the problem and

answer

in boxes.

enter your answer in the grid, as described

Fraction

line

below, on the answer sheet.

Decimal

point

1. Although not required, it is suggested that

you write your answer in the boxes at the top

of the columns to help you fill in the circles

Grid in

result.

accurately. You will receive credit only if the

circles are filled in correctly.

2. Mark no more than one circle in any column.

3. No question has a negative answer.

4. Some problems may have more than one

correct answer. In such cases, grid only one

answer.

5. Mixed numbers such as

must be gridded

Acceptable ways to grid are:

as 3.5 or 7/2. (If

is entered into the

grid, it will be interpreted as

, not

6. Decimal answers: If you obtain a decimal

answer with more digits than the grid can

accommodate, it may be either rounded or

truncated, but it must fill the entire grid.

Answer: 201 - either position is correct

NOTE: You

may start your

answers in any

column, space

permitting.

Columns you

don’t need to

use should be

left blank.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.

CONTINUE

A partially filled pool contains 600 gallons of water.

The pes, a Roman measure of length, is

A hose is turned on, and water flows into the pool at

approximately equal to 11.65 inches. It is also

the rate of 8 gallons per minute. How many gallons

equivalent to 16 smaller Roman units called digits.

of water will be in the pool after 70 minutes?

Based on these relationships, 75 Roman digits is

equivalent to how many feet, to the nearest

hundredth? (12 inches = 1 foot)

The normal systolic blood pressure P, in millimeters

of mercury, for an adult male x years old can be

In a study of bat migration habits, 240 male bats and

+ 220

modeled by the equation P

. According to

160 female bats have been tagged. If 100 more female

the model, for every increase of 1 year in age, by how

bats are tagged, how many more male bats must be

many millimeters of mercury will the normal systolic

tagged so that

5 ofthetotalnumberofbatsinthe

blood pressure for an adult male increase?

study are male?

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CONTINUE

YOUR NAME (PRINT)

LAST

FIRST

TEST CENTER

NUMBER

NAME OF TEST CENTER

ROOM NUMBER

general directions

- You may work on only one section at a time.

- If you finish a section before time is called, check

the codes below are unique to your test book.

your work on that section. You may NOT turn to any

copy them on your answer sheet in boxes 8 and 9 and fill

other section.

in the corresponding circles exactly as shown.

Marking answers

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(Copy from back of test book.)

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COMPLETE MARK

EXAMPLES OF

INCOMPLETE MARKS

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FORM CODE

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(Copy and grid as on

back of test book.)

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completely.

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be scored as intended answers.

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question numbers.

Using YoUr test Book

- You may use the test book for scratch work, but you

will not receive credit for anything that you write in your

test book.

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answers from your test book to your answer sheet or fill

in circles.

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from this book, or take the book or answer sheet from

the testing room.

scoring

Follow this link for more

- For each correct answer, you receive one point.

information on scoring

- You do not lose points for wrong answers; therefore,

your practice test:

you should try to answer every question even if you are

www.sat.org/scoring

not sure of the correct answer.

Ideas contained in passages for this test, some of which are excerpted or adapted from

5LSA09

published material, do not necessarily represent the opinions of the College Board.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOK UNTIL THE SUPERVISOR TELLS YOU TO DO SO.

SAT

^® Practice Essay #4

DIRECTIONS

REMINDERS

The essay gives you an opportunity to show how effectively

— Do not write your essay in

you can read and comprehend a passage and write an essay

this booklet. Only what you

analyzing the passage. In your essay, you should demonstrate

write on the lined pages of

that you have read the passage carefully, present a clear and

your answer booklet will be

logical analysis, and use language precisely.

evaluated.

Your essay must be written on the lines provided in your answer

— An off-topic essay will not

booklet; except for the Planning Page of the answer booklet,

be evaluated.

you will receive no other paper on which to write. You will have

enough space if you write on every line, avoid wide margins,

Follow this link for more

and keep your handwriting to a reasonable size. Remember that

information on scoring

people who are not familiar with your handwriting will read

your practice test:

what you write. Try to write or print so that what you are writing

www.sat.org/scoring

is legible to those readers.

You have 50 minutes to read the passage and write an essay

This cover is representative

in response to the prompt provided inside this booklet.

of what you’ll see on test day.

THIS TEST BOOKLET MUST NOT BE TAKEN FROM THE ROOM. UNAUTHORIZED

REPRODUCTION OR USE OF ANY PART OF THIS TEST BOOKLET IS PROHIBITED.

As you read the passage below, consider how Paul Bogard uses

• evidence, such as facts or examples, to support claims.

• reasoning to develop ideas and to connect claims and evidence.

• stylistic or persuasive elements, such as word choice or appeals to emotion,

to add power to the ideas expressed.

Originally published December 21, 2012.

At my family’s cabin on a Minnesota lake, I knew woods so dark that my hands

disappeared before my eyes. I knew night skies in which meteors left smoky trails

across sugary spreads of stars. But now, when 8 of 10 children born in the

United States will never know a sky dark enough for the Milky Way, I worry we are

rapidly losing night’s natural darkness before realizing its worth. This winter solstice,

as we cheer the days’ gradual movement back toward light, let us also remember the

irreplaceable value of darkness.

All life evolved to the steady rhythm of bright days and dark nights. Today, though,

when we feel the closeness of nightfall, we reach quickly for a light switch. And too

little darkness, meaning too much artificial light at night, spells trouble for all.

Already the World Health Organization classifies working the night shift as a

probable human carcinogen, and the American Medical Association has voiced its

unanimous support for “light pollution reduction efforts and glare reduction efforts

at both the national and state levels.” Our bodies need darkness to produce the

hormone melatonin, which keeps certain cancers from developing, and our bodies

need darkness for sleep. Sleep disorders have been linked to diabetes, obesity,

cardiovascular disease and depression, and recent research suggests one main cause

of “short sleep” is “long light.” Whether we work at night or simply take our tablets,

notebooks and smartphones to bed, there isn’t a place for this much artificial light in

our lives.

The rest of the world depends on darkness as well, including nocturnal and

crepuscular species of birds, insects, mammals, fish and reptiles. Some examples are

well known—the 400 species of birds that migrate at night in North America, the sea

turtles that come ashore to lay their eggs—and some are not, such as the bats that

save American farmers billions in pest control and the moths that pollinate 80% of

the world’s flora. Ecological light pollution is like the bulldozer of the night, wrecking

habitat and disrupting ecosystems several billion years in the making. Simply put,

without darkness, Earth’s ecology would collapse

In today’s crowded, louder, more fast-paced world, night’s darkness can provide

solitude, quiet and stillness, qualities increasingly in short supply. Every religious

tradition has considered darkness invaluable for a soulful life, and the chance to

witness the universe has inspired artists, philosophers and everyday stargazers since

time began. In a world awash with electric light . . . how would Van Gogh have given

the world his “Starry Night”? Who knows what this vision of the night sky might

inspire in each of us, in our children or grandchildren?

Yet all over the world, our nights are growing brighter. In the United States and

Western Europe, the amount of light in the sky increases an average of about 6%

every year. Computer images of the United States at night, based on NASA

photographs, show that what was a very dark country as recently as the 1950s is now

nearly covered with a blanket of light. Much of this light is wasted energy, which

means wasted dollars. Those of us over 35 are perhaps among the last generation to

have known truly dark nights. Even the northern lake where I was lucky to spend my

summers has seen its darkness diminish.

It doesn’t have to be this way. Light pollution is readily within our ability to solve,

using new lighting technologies and shielding existing lights. Already, many cities

and towns across North America and Europe are changing to LED streetlights, which

offer dramatic possibilities for controlling wasted light. Other communities are

finding success with simply turning off portions of their public lighting after

midnight. Even Paris, the famed “city of light,” which already turns off its monument

lighting after 1 a.m., will this summer start to require its shops, offices and public

buildings to turn off lights after 2 a.m. Though primarily designed to save energy,

such reductions in light will also go far in addressing light pollution. But we will

never truly address the problem of light pollution until we become aware of the

irreplaceable value and beauty of the darkness we are losing.

Write an essay in which you explain how Paul Bogard builds an argument to

persuade his audience that natural darkness should be preserved. In your

essay, analyze how Bogard uses one or more of the features listed in the box

above (or features of your own choice) to strengthen the logic and

persuasiveness of his argument. Be sure that your analysis focuses on the most

relevant features of the passage.

Your essay should not explain whether you agree with Bogard’s claims, but

rather explain how Bogard builds an argument to persuade his audience.

Answer Explanations

SAT Practice Test #4

Section 1: Reading Test

QUESTION 1.

Choice C is the best answer. Te narrator initially expresses uncertainty, or

uneasiness, over his decision to set out for the North Pole: “my motives in

this undertaking are not entirely clear” (lines 9-10). At the end of the pas-

sage, the narrator recognizes that because of this journey he is “on the brink

of knowing . . . not an ethereal mathematical spot,” the North Pole, but him-

self (lines 56-57).

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the narrator does not suggest that

he fears going on the expedition, doubts his own abilities, or feels disdain for

the North Pole.

QUESTION 2.

Choice D is the best answer. Lines 56-57 provide evidence that the narra-

tor eventually recognizes his motives for traveling to the North Pole: “What

I am on the brink of knowing, I now see, is not an ephemeral mathematical

spot but myself.” Te narrator initially was unsure of why he was traveling

to the North Pole, but realizes that he has embarked on a journey to find

himself.

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not provide the best evi-

dence that the narrator eventually recognizes his motives for traveling to the

North Pole. Rather, choices A, B, and C all focus on the narrator’s prepara-

tions and expectations for the journey.

QUESTION 3.

Choice D is the best answer. In lines 1-6, the narrator says that he feels a

“vast yearning” and that his emotions are “complicated.” He explains that he

does “not understand quite what it is that the yearning desires.” In this con-

text, his emotions are “not readily verifiable,” or not completely understood.

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because in this context, “not readily verifi-

able” does not mean unable to be authenticated, likely to be contradicted, or

without empirical support.

QUESTION 4.

Choice C is the best answer. In lines 10-13, the narrator explains that “the

machinery of [his] destiny has worked in secret” to prepare him for this

journey, as “its clockwork” has propelled him to “this time and place.” By

using the phrases “the machinery” and “its clockwork,” the narrator is show-

ing that powerful and independent forces are causing him to journey to the

North Pole.

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not indicate the main

purpose of lines 10-13. While lines 10-13 mention that these powerful and

independent forces have been working “for years, for a lifetime” to convince

the narrator to journey to the North Pole, they do not expose a hidden side

of the narrator, demonstrate the narrator’s manner, or explain the amount of

time the narrator has spent preparing for his expedition.

QUESTION 5.

Choice A is the best answer. In lines 20-21, the narrator states that many

people have perished while journeying to the North Pole: “Nobody has suc-

ceeded in this thing, and many have died.”

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the narrator does not indicate that

previous explorers have made surprising discoveries, have failed to deter-

mine the exact location of the North Pole, or had different motivations than

his own.

QUESTION 6.

Choice A is the best answer. In lines 20-21, the narrator provides evidence

that many previous explorers seeking the North Pole have perished in the

attempt: “Nobody has succeeded in this thing, and many have died.”

Choices B, C, and D do not mention previous explorers; therefore, these

lines do not provide the best evidence that explorers died while seeking the

North Pole.

QUESTION 7.

Choice B is the best answer. In lines 27-39, the narrator states that he is

“intent” on traveling to the North Pole but acknowledges that the journey

is absurd: “Who wants the North Pole! What good is it! Can you eat it? Will

it carry you from Gothenburg to Malmö like a railway?” By asking these

questions, the narrator recognizes that the North Pole has no practical value.

Still, the narrator admits that finding the North Pole is necessary, as it “must

nevertheless be sought for.”

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the narrator does not view his

expedition to the North Pole as immoral, socially beneficial, or scientifically

important.

QUESTION 8.

Choice D is the best answer. In lines 27-31, the narrator asks a series of rhe-

torical questions about the North Pole: “Who wants the North Pole! What

good is it! Can you eat it? Will it carry you from Gothenburg to Malmö like

a railway?” In this context, the narrator is suggesting that reaching the North

Pole has no foreseeable benefit or value to humanity; unlike trains that bring

travelers to specific destinations, the North Pole does not provide humans

with a specific benefit or form of convenience.

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the question posed in lines 30-31

does not debate modes of travel, examine the proximity of cities that can be

reached by trains, or question how ofen people travel.

QUESTION 9.

Choice D is the best answer. In lines 48-49, the narrator states that the

North Pole “is an abstraction, a mathematical fiction” and that “no one but

a Swedish madman could take the slightest interest in it.” In this context, the

narrator is stating that people would not “take the slightest interest in,” or be

curious about, the North Pole.

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because in this context, “take the slightest

interest in” does not mean to accept responsibility for, to possess little regard

for, or to pay no attention to something.

QUESTION 10.

Choice A is the best answer. In lines 49-51, the narrator describes his bal-

loon journey toward the North Pole: “Te wind is still from the south, bear-

ing us steadily northward at the speed of a trotting dog.” In this context, the

wind is “bearing,” or carrying, the narrator in a direction to the North.

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because in this context, “bearing” does not

mean affecting, yielding, or enduring.

QUESTION 11.

Choice C is the best answer. Te author states that “demographic inver-

sion is not a proxy for population growth” (lines 32-33). In other words,

demographic inversion is distinct from population growth. Te author also

notes that demographic inversion is evident in many American cities, as it

“can occur in cities that are growing, those whose numbers are flat, and even

in those undergoing a modest decline in size” (lines 33-35).

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not summarize the first

paragraph.

QUESTION 12.

Choice D is the best answer. Te author notes that one of “the most power-

ful demographic events of the past decade [was] the movement of African

Americans out of central cities” (lines 14-17).

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the author does not state that the

unemployed, immigrants, or young professionals moved away from central-

city areas in large numbers in the early 2000s.

QUESTION 13.

Choice A is the best answer. Te author states that democratic inversion

“can occur in cities that are growing, those whose numbers are flat, and even

in those undergoing a modest decline in size” (lines 33-35). In this context,

cities whose “numbers,” or population size, are “flat” have static, or unchang-

ing, populations.

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because in this context, “flat” does not

mean deflated, featureless, or obscure.

QUESTION 14.

Choice B is the best answer. Te author states that many major American

cities are currently experiencing economic hardship, or “enormous fiscal

problems,” because of “public pension obligations they incurred in the more

prosperous years of the past two decades” (lines 36-39). Te author then

provides the example of Chicago, a city that can no longer afford to pay the

“public services to which most of [its] citizens have grown to feel entitled”

(lines 41-43). Te author is arguing that many major American cities face

economic hardship due to past promises (such as public services) they made

to their constituents.

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the passage does not discuss

expected tax increases, an inner-city tax base, or manufacturing production

as they relate to the financial status of many major American cities.

QUESTION 15.

Choice A is the best answer. In lines 36-39, the author provides evidence

that many major American cities are currently experiencing economic hard-

ship due to promises made in past years: “America’s major cities face enor-

mous fiscal problems, many of them the result of public pension obligations

they incurred in the more prosperous years of the past two decades.”

America’s major cities made past promises, such as “public pension obliga-

tions,” to their citizens, which caused their current financial situation.

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not provide evidence that

many major American cities are currently experiencing economic hardship

due to promises made in past years.

QUESTION 16.

Choice C is the best answer. Te author explains how sociologist Ernest

W. Burgess determined that urban areas have a traditional four-zone struc-

ture (lines 54-63). He then states that Burgess was “right about the urban

America of 1974” (line 65) as it also followed the traditional four-zone

structure: “Virtually every city in the country had a downtown, where the

commercial life of the metropolis was conducted; it had a factory district

just beyond; it had districts of working-class residences just beyond that;

and it had residential suburbs for the wealthy and the upper middle class at

the far end of the continuum” (lines 66-71).

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the passage does not imply that

American cities in 1974 were witnessing the flight of minority populations

to the suburbs, had begun to lose their manufacturing sectors, or were

already experiencing demographic inversion.

QUESTION 17.

Choice C is the best answer. In lines 66-71, the author provides evidence

that American cities in 1974 had a traditional four-zone structure: “Virtually

every city in the country had a downtown, where the commercial life of

the metropolis was conducted; it had a factory district just beyond; it had

districts of working-class residences just beyond that; and it had residen-

tial suburbs for the wealthy and the upper middle class at the far end of

the continuum.”

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not provide evidence

that American urban cities in 1974 had a traditional four-zone structure.

Choice A references a seminal paper on the layout of American cities, choice

B identifies Burgess’s original theory, and choice D focuses on movement to

the suburbs.

QUESTION 18.

Choice A is the best answer. In lines 66-68, the author notes that American

cities in 1974 each had a “downtown, where the commercial life of the

metropolis was conducted.” In this context, the author is stating that these

cities “conducted,” or carried out, business, the “commercial life,” in down-

town areas.

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because in this context, “conducted” does

not mean supervised, regulated, or inhibited.

QUESTION 19.

Choice B is the best answer. Chart 1 shows the percentage of the US popu-

lation in 2010 that lived in non-metro, small metro, and large metro areas.

While the author cites census numbers, he notes that “when it comes to

measuring demographic inversion, raw census numbers are an ineffective

blunt instrument” (lines 11-13). Census data refer to the number of people

living in a specific area and the demographic information that’s been col-

lected on them. Te author would most likely consider the information in

chart 1 to be possibly accurate but an “ineffective blunt instrument” that’s

not truly informative.

Choices A and C are incorrect because the author would not consider census

data to be excellent or compelling. Choice D is incorrect because while the

author does not believe the census completely explains demographic inver-

sion, he would be unlikely to disagree with the census data.

QUESTION 20.

Choice A is the best answer. Chart 2 shows that the growth of all metro-

politan areas in the 1990s was higher than the growth in all metropolitan

areas in the 2000s: large metro areas experienced a growth of 14.3% in the

1990s versus a growth of 10.9% in the 2000s, small metro areas experienced

a growth of 13.1% in the 1990s versus a growth of 10.3% in the 2000s, and

non-metro areas experienced a growth of 9.0% in the 1990s versus a growth

of 4.5% in the 2000s.

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately character-

ize the US growth rate by metro size from 2000-2010 as illustrated in chart 2.

QUESTION 21.

Choice D is the best answer. Chart 2 shows that in the 1990s the US pop-

ulation increased in large metro, small metro, and non-metro areas when

compared to the population growth experienced in the 1980s. Large metro

areas experienced a growth of 12.5% in the 1980s versus a growth of 14.3%

in the 1990s, small metro areas experienced a growth of 8.8% in the 1980s

versus a growth of 13.1% in the 1990s, and non-metro areas experienced a

growth of 1.8% in the 1980s versus a growth of 9.0% in the 1990s. Given this

information, the population grew more in all metro areas in the 1990s when

compared to the growth of those areas in the 1980s.

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not draw an accurate con-

clusion about the US growth rate in the 1990s.

QUESTION 22.

Choice A is the best answer. Lines 9-11 introduce the focus of the passage:

“Welcome to the world of ‘pharming,’ in which simple genetic tweaks turn

animals into living pharmaceutical factories.” Te passage then discusses the

chronological development of “pharming,” and describes ATryn, a useful

drug produced afer decades of laboratory experiments.

Choices B and C are incorrect because the passage does not primarily evalu-

ate research or summarize long-term research findings. Choice D is incor-

rect because “pharming” is not a branch of scientific study.

QUESTION 23.

Choice C is the best answer. Te author is appreciative of pharming and

describes it as turning “animals into living pharmaceutical factories” (lines

10-11). She expresses a positive view of pharming in line 70, when she

describes its end result: “Et voilà—human medicine!”

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the author’s attitude about pharm-

ing is not accurately characterized as one of fear, disinterest, or surprise.

QUESTION 24.

Choice C is the best answer. In lines 19-21, the author explains that dairy

animals are “expert,” or capable, “protein producers.”

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in this context “expert” does not

mean knowledgeable, professional, or trained.

QUESTION 25.

Choice B is the best answer. In line 36, the author explains that the initial

transgenic studies were “lab-bound thought experiments come true.” Tose

first studies, in other words, were considered to be of theoretical value only.

Tey were not expected to yield products ready for human use.

Choices A and D are incorrect because the cost of animal research and the

molecular properties of certain animals are not discussed in the passage.

Choice C is incorrect because the passage does not suggest that all of the

transgenic studies were focused on anticoagulants.

QUESTION 26.

Choice C is the best answer. In lines 35-36, the author provides evidence

that the transgenic studies done in the 1980s and 1990s were not expected

to yield products ready for human use. Te author explains that the initial

transgenic studies were “merely gee-whiz, scientific geekery, lab-bound

thought experiments come true.”

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not provide evidence that

the transgenic studies done in the 1980s and 1990s were not expected to

yield products ready for human use. Choices A and B do not address the

transgenic studies, and choice D focuses on ATryn, a drug that was intended

for human use.

QUESTION 27.

Choice A is the best answer. Lines 42-44 explain that ATryn “acts as a

molecular bouncer, sidling up to clot-forming compounds and escorting

them out of the bloodstream.” Antithrombin can thus be seen as an agent

that reduces the amount of dangerous clots in the bloodstream.

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the passage does not suggest that

antithrombin stems from a rare genetic mutation, is a sequence of DNA, or

occurs naturally in goats’ mammary glands.

QUESTION 28.

Choice B is the best answer. Lines 42-44 provide evidence that antithrom-

bin reduces compounds that lead to blood clots, as it acts as a “molecular

bouncer, sidling up to clot-forming compounds and escorting them out of

the bloodstream.”

Choices A, C, and D do not provide evidence that antithrombin reduces

compounds that lead to blood clots; these lines describe proteins, people

unable to produce antithrombin, and the production of ATryn.

QUESTION 29.

Choice B is the best answer. In lines 60-62, the description of female goats’

kids mentions that “some of them proved to be transgenic, the human gene

nestled safely in their cells.” Te statement “some of them” indicates that

while a number of the newborn goats were transgenic, others were not.

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the passage does not suggest that

the female goats used in the initial experiment secreted antithrombin in

their milk afer giving birth, were the first animals to receive the microinjec-

tions, or had cells that contained genes usually found in humans.

QUESTION 30.

Choice D is the best answer. In lines 63-64, the parenthetical is added afer

the phrase “a promoter,” which is “(. . . a sequence of DNA that controls gene

activity).” Te parenthetical’s purpose is to define the term “promoter.”

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not correctly identify the

purpose of the parenthetical information in lines 63-64.

QUESTION 31.

Choice D is the best answer. Gold is a valuable element that commands

high prices, so calling something “liquid gold” implies that it has great value.

Because the pharmaceutical company GTC was producing the drug in order

to sell it, it can be inferred that describing ATryn as “liquid gold” means it

proved to be a lucrative product for GTC.

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the phrase “liquid gold” does

not refer to the microinjection technique, efficiency in dairy production, or

transgenic goats being beneficial to dairy farmers.

QUESTION 32.

Choice D is the best answer. In lines 25-29, Burke describes the contract

between a person and society as one that is “not a partnership in things sub-

servient only to the gross animal existence of a temporary and perishable

nature. It is a partnership in all science; a partnership in all art; a partnership

in every virtue, and in all perfection.” Describing that contract as a partner-

ship in all things indicates its seriousness, while describing it as not being a

“temporary and perishable nature” implies its permanence.

Choice A is incorrect because line 27 states that the contract between a per-

son and society is not “temporary or perishable,” meaning it is not brief.

Choices B and C are incorrect because the passage does not compare the

contracts in terms of complexity or precision.

QUESTION 33.

Choice D is the best answer. In lines 1-9, Burke explains that people have

“consecrated the state” to “avoid . . . the evils of inconstancy and versatility,”

and that people should examine “the faults of the state . . . with pious awe

and trembling solitude.” Burke then explains that society is taught to “look

with horror on those children of their country who want to hack that aged

parent in pieces” (lines 10-12). Burke is arguing that children want to revise

the state, or “this aged parent,” by amending its faults. In this context, “state”

refers to a political entity, or government, that attempts to protect its citizens

from “the evils of inconstancy and versatility.”

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because in this context, “state” does not

mean style of living, position in life, or temporary condition.

QUESTION 34.

Choice A is the best answer. In lines 17-29, Burke argues that “subordinate

contracts,” are simply business agreements over traded goods, while the state

is not merely “a partnership agreement in a trade . . . or some other such

low concern . . . but a partnership in all science; a partnership in all art;

a partnership in every virtue, and in all perfection.” In this context, Burke is

stating that the state is not a contract consisting of “low” or petty concerns.

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because in this context, “low” does not

mean weak, inadequate, or depleted.

QUESTION 35.

Choice D is the best answer. In lines 41-43, Paine asserts that “Every age and

generation must be as free to act for itself, in all cases, as the ages and genera-

tions which preceded it.” He later states that deceased citizens of a state should

no longer have “any authority in directing who shall be its governors, or how

its government shall be organized, or how administered” (lines 61-63). Paine

doesn’t believe, in other words, that the decisions of previous generations

should dictate the conditions of modern life and government.

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately character-

ize the way Paine views historical precedents.

QUESTION 36.

Choice B is the best answer. In lines 30-34, Burke describes societal con-

tracts as long-term agreements that preserve the interests of past generations

and link the living and the dead into a “partnership.” Paine, however, states

that past generations have no “control” over the decisions made by living

(line 71) because the dead have “no longer any participation in the concerns

of this world” (lines 59-60).

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately character-

ize how Paine would respond to Burke’s claim that societal contracts link

past and current generations.

QUESTION 37.

Choice D is the best answer. Lines 67-72 provide the best evidence that

Paine would respond to Burke’s statement that society is a “partnership”

between past and current generations (lines 30-34) with the explanation that

the current generation cannot know what judgments the dead would make

about contemporary issues. In these lines Paine explains: “What possible

obligation, then, can exist between them; what rule or principle can be laid

down, that two nonentities, the one out of existence, and the other not in,

and who never can meet in this world, that the one should control the other

to the end of time?”

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the lines cited do not provide the

best evidence that Paine would respond to Burke’s statement that society is a

“partnership” between past and current generations (lines 30-34) by arguing

that the current generation cannot know what judgments the dead would

make about contemporary issues.

QUESTION 38.

Choice D is the best answer. Paine concludes Passage 2 with the argument

that because social issues change over time, the living should not try to

adhere to decisions made by former generations (lines 73-80). Burke, how-

ever, states that living citizens exist within a “universal kingdom” (line 35)

comprised of the living, the dead, and those who are not yet born. Burke

argues that the living do not have the right to change their government

based on “their speculations of a contingent improvement” (lines 36-37).

Terefore, Burke would disapprove of Paine’s concluding argument, as he

believes the living do not have sufficient justification for changing the exist-

ing governmental structure.

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately describe

how Burke would likely have responded to Paine’s remarks in the final para-

graph of Passage 2.

QUESTION 39.

Choice D is the best answer. Lines 34-38 provide the best evidence that Burke

would disapprove of Paine’s remarks in the final paragraph of Passage 2: “Te

municipal corporations of that universal kingdom are not morally at liberty

at [the living’s] pleasure, and on their speculations of a contingent improve-

ment, wholly to separate and tear asunder the bands of their subordinate

community.” In these lines, Burke is arguing that the living do not have suf-

ficient justification to change the existing governmental structure.

Choices A, B, and C do not provide the best evidence that Burke would

disapprove of Paine’s remarks in the final paragraph of Passage 2, as Burke

believes the living do not have sufficient justification for changing the exist-

ing governmental structure.

QUESTION 40.

Choice A is the best answer. Te primary argument of Passage 1 is that an

inviolable contract exists between a people and its government, one that is

to be “looked on with other reverence” (lines 24-25). Passage 1 suggests that

this contract exists between past and future generations as well; in effect,

current and future generations should be governed by decisions made in the

past. Passage 2 challenges these points, as it argues that current and future

generations are not obligated to preserve past generations’ beliefs: “Te

Parliament or the people of 1688, or of any other period, had no more right

to dispose of the people of the present day, or to bind or to control them in

any shape whatever, than the parliament or the people of the present day

have to dispose of, bind, or control those who are to live a hundred or a

thousand years hence” (lines 48-54).

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Passage 2 does not offer an alter-

native approach to Passage 1, support an idea introduced in Passage 1, or

exemplify an attitude promoted in Passage 1.

QUESTION 41.

Choice B is the best answer. Passage 1 argues that the government is sacred

(lines 3-6) and that no person should interfere with it (lines 6-9). Passage 2

argues that people have the right to make changes to their government: “Te

circumstances of the world are continually changing, and the opinions of

men change also; and as government is for the living, and not for the dead, it

is the living only that has any right in it” (lines 73-76).

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not identify the main

purpose of both passages.

QUESTION 42.

Choice C is the best answer. Te author explains that a “powerful volcano”

erupted around 750 years ago and caused “a centuries-long cold snap known

as the Little Ice Age” (lines 1-3). Te author then states that a group of sci-

entists believe the volcano Samalas was this “powerful volcano,” and she

explains how the scientists’ research supports this claim (lines 17-78).

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not identify the main

purpose of the passage.

QUESTION 43.

Choice B is the best answer. Te author begins the passage by explaining

how the Little Ice Age was a “centuries-long cold snap” that was likely caused

by a volcanic eruption (lines 1-3). Te author then explains how scientists

used radiocarbon analysis to determine when the Little Ice Age began and

how a volcanic eruption triggered the cooling temperatures (lines 17-25).

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the passage does not criticize a

scientific model, offer a new method of measuring sulfates, or shif from the

use of radiocarbon dating to an examination of volcanic glass.

QUESTION 44.

Choice A is the best answer. In lines 17-25, the passage shifs focus from

describing a recorded event to providing evidence that the Little Ice Age was

likely caused by a volcanic eruption. Te passage states that scientists used

“radiocarbon dating of dead plant material from beneath the ice caps on

Baffin Island and Iceland, as well as ice and sediment core data” to determine

when the Little Ice Age began and how it was connected to the “mystery”

volcanic eruption.

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not provide the best evi-

dence that the passage shifs focus from a description of a recorded event to

its likely cause. Choices B, C, and D all focus on the scientists’ research but

do not explain what caused the Little Ice Age.

QUESTION 45.

Choice D is the best answer. According to lines 5-8, “Tat a powerful volcano

erupted somewhere in the world, sometime in the Middle Ages, is written in

polar ice cores in the form of layers of sulfate deposits and tiny shards of volca-

nic glass.” Te phrase “is written in” reinforces the idea that the polar ice caps

contain evidence of the volcanic eruption, and that scientists can interpret this

evidence by examining the “sulfate deposits and tiny shards of volcanic glass.”

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the author does not use the phrase

“is written in” to demonstrate the concept of the hands-on nature of the sci-

entists’ work, highlight the fact that scientists ofen write about their work,

or underscore the sense of importance scientists have about their work.

QUESTION 46.

Choice A is the best answer. Te scientists believe the volcano Samalas,

located in Indonesia, was most likely the medieval volcanic eruption

(lines 33-35). Te eruption likely occurred near the equator because an

equatorial location is “consistent with the apparent climate impacts” the sci-

entists observed (lines 61-67).

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the scientists do not suggest

that the medieval volcanic eruption was located in the Arctic region, the

Antarctic region, or Ecuador.

QUESTION 47.

Choice D is the best answer. In lines 61-64, the author cites geochemist

Gifford Miller’s findings that provide evidence that the medieval volcanic

eruption most likely occurred in Indonesia near the equator: “It’s not a total

surprise that an Indonesian volcano might be the source of the eruption,

Miller says. ‘An equatorial eruption is more consistent with the apparent cli-

mate impacts.’”

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not provide evidence that

the medieval volcanic eruption most likely occurred in Indonesia near the

equator. Rather, choices A, B, and C focus on the medieval volcano’s power,

impact, and magnitude.

QUESTION 48.

Choice C is the best answer. In lines 68-71, the author states, “Another possible

candidate—both in terms of timing and geographical location—is Ecuador’s

Quilotoa, estimated to have last erupted between 1147 and 1320 C.E.” Te

phrase “another possible candidate” implies that the scientists believe that in

the Middle Ages a different volcanic eruption, such as an eruption from the vol-

cano Quilotoa, could have been responsible for the onset of the Little Ice Age.

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the phrase “another possible can-

didate” does not imply the frequency or effects of volcanic eruptions, or that

some volcanoes have large calderas.

QUESTION 49.

Choice D is the best answer. In lines 71-75, the author explains how

Lavigne’s team proved that Quilotoa’s eruption did not cause the Little

Ice Age:

“But when Lavigne’s team examined shards of volcanic glass from this vol-

cano, they found that they didn’t match the chemical composition of the

glass found in polar ice cores, whereas the Samalas glass is a much closer

match.” Tese findings show that Samalas, not Quilotoa, was responsible for

the onset of the Little Ice Age.

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they focus on the difficulty of

identifying the volcano responsible for the Little Ice Age, the magnitude of

the volcanic eruption, and the researchers’ experiment.

QUESTION 50.

Choice C is the best answer. Te data in the figure show the greatest below-

average temperature variation occurred in 1675 CE, as the temperature

reached a variation of −1.0° Celsius.

Choice A is incorrect because the figure shows that the temperature in

1200 CE was above average (+0.25° Celsius). Choices B and D are incor-

rect because the below-average temperature variation reported in 1675 CE

(at −1.0° Celsius) was greater than the below-average temperature varia-

tion reported for 1375 CE (around −0.25° Celsius) and 1750 CE (around

(−0.5° Celsius).

QUESTION 51.

Choice B is the best answer. Te passage says that the Little Ice Age began

“about 750 years ago” (line 1) and that “the cold summers and ice growth

began abruptly between 1275 and 1300 C.E.” (lines 23-24). Te figure indicates

that average temperatures in central England began to drop around 1275 CE,

and this drop in temperatures continued “through the 1700s” (line 32).

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the passage and figure do not

indicate that the Little Ice Again began around 1150 CE, just before 1500 CE,

or around 1650 CE.

QUESTION 52.

Choice A is the best answer. Te figure shows that the greatest cooling

period of the Little Ice Age occurred between 1500 and 1700 CE; it also

shows that the greatest warming period of the Medieval Warm Period

occurred between 1150 and 1250 CE. Terefore, the Little Ice Age’s greatest

cooling occurred a couple of centuries, or “hundreds of years,” afer the tem-

perature peaks of the Medieval Warm Period.

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the figure does not focus on equa-

torial volcanic eruptions, pyroclastic flows, or radiocarbon analysis.

Section 2: Writing and Language Test

QUESTION 1.

Choice B is the best answer because the relative clause appropriately modi-

fies the noun “work” in the preceding independent clause.

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because each creates a comma splice.

QUESTION 2.

Choice B is the best answer because it creates the appropriate contrasting

transition from the fact that the first two panels were painted during the day

to the fact that the third panel was painted at night.

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because each creates an inappropriate

transition from the previous sentence. Choice A and choice D imply addi-

tion rather than contrast. Choice C results in an incomplete sentence.

QUESTION 3.

Choice B is the best answer because it creates an appropriate appositive to

the subject “mural,” and is correctly set off by commas on both sides.

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because each is incorrectly punctuated.

Choice A lacks a comma afer “centerpiece,” choice C unnecessarily intro-

duces an independent clause, and choice D contains an em dash that has no

parallel earlier in the sentence.

QUESTION 4.

Choice A is the best answer because it explicitly introduces the explanation

for the behavior (painting at night) described in the previous paragraph.

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because none alludes to the artist’s paint-

ing at night, which is described at the end of the previous paragraph and

explained in this paragraph.

QUESTION 5.

Choice D is the best answer because it refers to an action that can be per-

formed on a physical object such as a mural.

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each refers to an action that is

performed on information rather than on a physical object.

QUESTION 6.

Choice B is the best answer because it creates a past tense construction

consistent with the verb “was dominated.”

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because none is consistent with the verb

tense established earlier in the sentence.

QUESTION 7.

Choice D is the best answer because it is the most precise choice, specifying

the noun that the demonstrative pronoun “this” refers to.

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each provides a vague, nonspecific

pronoun that does not concretely define a referent.

QUESTION 8.

Choice B is the best answer because it correctly places and punctuates the

appositive phrase that describes the “Chicano mural movement.”

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because each contains awkward syntax

that obscures the relationship between the key noun phrases “an explosion

of mural painting” and “the Chicano mural movement.”

QUESTION 9.

Choice C is the best answer because it creates parallel construction

within the list of locations (“in abandoned lots, on unused buildings, or on

infrastructure”).

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because none follows the construction

established within the list of locations.

QUESTION 10.

Choice A is the best answer because it alludes to the uniquely high level of

investment, described in the next sentence, that the new group of artists is

making in restoring and publicizing “América Tropical.”

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because each fails to express the connec-

tion between the general restoration efforts mentioned in the previous sen-

tence and the specific role of “América Tropical” in these efforts, which is

described in the next sentence.

QUESTION 11.

Choice C is the best answer because details of the initial reaction to

Siqueiros’s mural and its subsequent rediscovery are given previously in

the passage and are not needed to set up the forward-looking sentence that

follows.

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because each provides an inaccurate inter-

pretation of the sentence that the writer is considering adding.

QUESTION 12.

Choice D is the best answer because without the underlined portion, the

sentence contains an appropriate parallel contrast between the phrases

“organically grown crops” and “conventionally grown counterparts,” each of

which describes crops.

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each creates an illogical compari-

son: crops to “people,” crops to “purchase,” and crops to “purchasing.”

QUESTION 13.

Choice B is the best answer because it provides the subject “consumers,”

creating a complete sentence and providing a referent for the pronoun

“they” that appears later in the sentence.

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because each lacks the subject that the

sentence requires and none provide a referent for “they.”

QUESTION 14.

Choice D is the best answer because it efficiently creates a contrast with

“organically grown.”

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they are unnecessarily wordy and

repeat information given in previous sentences.

QUESTION 15.

Choice C is the best answer because it sets up the contrast between the

added expense of organic food and the evidence that suggests a lack of ben-

efits from eating organic food.

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because each fails to acknowledge the con-

trast between the last sentence in the paragraph and the previous sentences.

QUESTION 16.

Choice C is the best answer because “maintain” is commonly used to

describe advocating a position in an argument.

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because none is appropriate in the context

of describing an opinion advocated by a group of people.

QUESTION 17.

Choice A is the best answer because the transitional phrase “For instance”

sets up an example supporting the point, made in the previous sentence, that

organic food may not contain more vitamins and minerals than convention-

ally grown food.

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because none indicates that the sentence is

providing an example supporting the point made in the previous sentence.

QUESTION 18.

Choice C is the best answer because it accurately identifies the reason that

the writer should not add the proposed sentence: the paragraph is about evi-

dence of nutritional content, not the availability of organic food.

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because each provides an inaccurate inter-

pretation of the proposed sentence’s relationship to the passage.

QUESTION 19.

Choice A is the best answer because the plural verb “have” is consistent

with the plural subject “amounts.”

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because each is a singular verb, which is

inconsistent with the plural subject “amounts.”

QUESTION 20.

Choice C is the best answer because the example it supplies, that pesticides

can be minimized by washing or peeling produce, supports the claim that

nonorganic food is safe.

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because none supports the paragraph’s

claim about the safety of nonorganic food.

QUESTION 21.

Choice B is the best answer because the plural noun phrase “numerous

other reasons” must be preceded by a plural verb and a pronoun that does

not indicate possession: “there are.”

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because each contains the singular verb

“is,” the possessive pronoun “their,” or both.

QUESTION 22.

Choice D is the best answer because a nonrestrictive clause must be pre-

ceded by a comma; in addition, “such as” is never followed by a comma.

In this case, the list of reasons supporting the claim that there are benefits

to buying organic food is nonrestrictive; the list tells the reader something

about organic food but does not restrict or place limits on organic food.

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each places erroneous punc-

tuation afer the phrase “such as.” Choices B and C also lack the necessary

comma preceding “such as.”

QUESTION 23.

Choice C is the best answer because “intriguing” conveys a realistic level

of interest for the entertaining but ultimately inconsequential question of

regional differences in words for carbonated beverages.

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because each mocks the topic of regional

words for carbonated beverages.

QUESTION 24.

Choice C is the best answer because “but also” is the appropriate transition

to complete the correlative pair “not only . . . but also,” which begins earlier

in the sentence.

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because each fails to complete the phrase

“not only . . . but also.”

QUESTION 25.

Choice B is the best answer because it is consistent with the fact that there

remains a “veritable army of trained volunteers traveling the country” and

because it uses “still” to contrast this method with the “new avenues.”

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because none is consistent with the infor-

mation contained later in the passage.

QUESTION 26.

Choice D is the best answer because it uses the relative pronoun “who” to

avoid needless repetition of the word “scholars.”

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each unnecessarily repeats the

word “scholars.”

QUESTION 27.

Choice C is the best answer because the new sentence provides a logical tran-

sition from sentences 3 and 4, which describe the data collection, to sentence

5, which explains that completing the dictionary took far longer than expected.

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because each fails to create a logical transi-

tion between the preceding and subsequent sentences.

QUESTION 28.

Choice A is the best answer because the singular verb “requires” agrees with

the singular subject “research.”

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not create subject-verb

agreement.

QUESTION 29.

Choice D is the best answer because a colon is the correct punctuation to

introduce the elaborating phrase that follows the word “army.”

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because none provides the appropriate

punctuation.

QUESTION 30.

Choice B is the best answer because it contains both the correct word to

refer to an Internet location—“site”—and the correct preposition to com-

plete the collocation “in search of.”

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because each contains a word that does

not refer to an Internet location, and choices C and D contain the wrong

preposition.

QUESTION 31.

Choice C is the best answer because it correctly associates each beverage

term with the region described in the sentence according to the information

contained in the map.

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because each contradicts the information

contained in the map.

QUESTION 32.

Choice B is the best answer because it contains the two plural possessive

pronouns needed to refer to the subject “findings”—“their” and “their.”

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because each contains a word frequently

confused with “their.”

QUESTION 33.

Choice A is the best answer because it provides a summary and evaluation

of gathering data from the Internet, which is the focus of the paragraph.

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because each is either irrelevant to the

main point of the paragraph or unnecessarily repeats information.

QUESTION 34.

Choice C is the best answer because it uses the present tense, which is con-

sistent with the verbs that appear later in the sentence.

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they create awkward shifs in

tense.

QUESTION 35.

Choice C is the best answer because the em dashes correctly bracket the

examples of the types of elements.

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because each uses either inconsistent or

incorrect punctuation to set off the types of elements.

QUESTION 36.

Choice B is the best answer because a period is an appropriate way to sepa-

rate the two independent clauses that meet at the underlined text.

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because each either creates a comma

splice or lacks necessary punctuation.

QUESTION 37.

Choice D is the best answer because the proposed sentence to be added is a

paraphrase of the sentence before it, containing the same ideas.

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because none fully acknowledges the rela-

tionship between the proposed sentence to be added and the other sentences

in the paragraph.

QUESTION 38.

Choice A is the best answer because it highlights the importance of the

game designer’s communication with others, which is the paragraph’s

main point.

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because none describes communica-

tion originating with the game designer, which is the main focus of the

paragraph.

QUESTION 39.

Choice C is the best answer because the importance of communication is

established in the previous sentences. Te transition “consequently” best

captures the fact that the designer must be skilled in this area.

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because each contains a transition that

either repeats information or creates an illogical relationship between this

sentence and the previous sentences.

QUESTION 40.

Choice B is the best answer because it provides the singular nouns “writer”

and “speaker” to agree with the singular pronoun “anyone.”

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because none creates pronoun-referent

agreement.

QUESTION 41.

Choice D is the best answer because it expresses in the clearest, simplest

way the idea that many game designers start out as programmers.

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each is unnecessarily wordy and

obscures meaning.

QUESTION 42.

Choice D is the best answer because it logically and appropriately modifies

the phrase “collaboration skills.”

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because none appropriately describes the

value of collaboration skills.

QUESTION 43.

Choice A is the best answer because it provides a logical subject for the

modifying phrase “demanding and deadline driven.”

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because each creates a dangling modifier.

QUESTION 44.

Choice B is the best answer because sentence 5 expresses the main point

upon which the paragraph elaborates.

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because none places sentence 5 in the

appropriate position to set up the details contained in the paragraph.

Section 3: Math Test — No Calculator

QUESTION 1.

Choice A is correct. Te expression |x − 1| −1 will equal 0 if |x − 1| = 1. Tis

is true for x = 2 and for x = 0. For example, substituting x = 2 into the expres-

sion |x − 1| − 1 and simplifying the result yields |2 − 1| − 1 = |1| − 1 = 1 − 1 = 0.

Terefore, there is a value of x for which |x − 1| − 1 is equal to 0.

Choice B is incorrect. By definition, the absolute value of any expression

is a nonnegative number. Substituting any value for x into the expression

|x + 1| will yield a nonnegative number as the result. Because the sum of

a nonnegative number and a positive number is positive, |x + 1| + 1 will

be a positive number for any value of x. Terefore, |x + 1| + 1 ≠ 0 for any

value of x. Choice C is incorrect. By definition, the absolute value of any

expression is a nonnegative number. Substituting any value for x into the

expression |1 − x| will yield a nonnegative number as the result. Because the

sum of a nonnegative number and a positive number is positive, |1 − x| + 1

will be a positive number for any value of x. Therefore, |1 − x| + 1 ≠ 0 for

any value of x. Choice D is incorrect. By definition, the absolute value of any

expression is a nonnegative number. Substituting any value for x into the

expression |x − 1| will yield a nonnegative number as the result. Because the

sum of a nonnegative number and a positive number is positive, |x − 1| + 1

will be a positive number for any value of x. Terefore, |x − 1| + 1 ≠ 0 for any

value of x.

QUESTION 2.

Choice A is correct. Since f(x) =  ^_ 

2x + b and f(6) = 7, substituting 6 for x in

f(x) =  ^_ 

2x + b gives f(6) =  2(6) + b = 7. Ten, solving the equation 2(6) + b = 7

for b gives  18  

2 + b = 7, or 9 + b = 7. Tus, b = 7 − 9 = −2. Substituting this

value back into the original function gives f(x) =  ^_ 

2x − 2; therefore, one can

evaluate f( −2) by substituting −2 for x:  ^_ 

2(−2) − 2 = − 2  − 2 = −3 − 2 = −5.

Choice B is incorrect as it is the value of b, not of f(−2). Choice C is incorrect

as it is the value of f(2), not of f(−2). Choice D is incorrect as it is the value of

f(6), not of f(−2).

QUESTION 3.

Choice A is correct. Te first equation can be rewritten as x = 6y. Substituting

6y for x in the second equation gives 4(y + 1) = 6y. Te lef-hand side can be

rewritten as 4y + 4, giving 4y + 4 = 6y. Subtracting 4y from both sides of the

equation gives 4 = 2y, or y = 2.

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect and may be the result of a computational

or conceptual error when solving the system of equations.

QUESTION 4.

Choice B is correct. If f(x) = − 2x + 5, then one can evaluate f(−3x) by sub-

stituting −3x for every instance of x. Tis yields f(−3x) = −2 (−3x) + 5, which

simplifies to 6x + 5.

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect and may be the result of miscalculations

in the substitution or of misunderstandings of how to evaluate f(−3x).

QUESTION 5.

Choice C is correct. Te expression 3(2x + 1)(4x + 1) can be simplified

by first distributing the 3 to yield (6x + 3)(4x + 1), and then expanding to

obtain 24x² + 12x + 6x + 3. Combining like terms gives 24x² + 18x + 3.

Choice A is incorrect and may be the result of performing the term-by-term

multiplication of 3(2x + 1)(4x + 1) and treating every term as an x-term.

Choice B is incorrect and may be the result of correctly finding (6x + 3)(4x + 1),

but then multiplying only the first terms, (6x)(4x), and the last terms, (3)(1),

but not the outer or inner terms. Choice D is incorrect and may be the result

of incorrectly distributing the 3 to both terms to obtain (6x + 3)(12x + 3), and

then adding 3 + 3 and 6x + 12x and incorrectly adding the exponents of x.

QUESTION 6.

Choice B is correct. Te equation  a b b

=  ^_  

7 can be rewritten as  b  −  b =  7,

from which it follows that  ^_ 

b− 1 =  7 , or b  = 7  + 1 =

7 .

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect and may be the result of calculation errors

in rewriting  a b 

=  ^_ 

7. For example, choice A may be the result of a sign

error in rewriting  a b b

as  ^_ 

b+  b = b  + 1.

QUESTION 7.

Choice D is correct. In Amelia’s training schedule, her longest run in week 16

will be 26 miles and her longest run in week 4 will be 8 miles. Tus, Amelia

increases the distance of her longest run by 18 miles over the course of

12 weeks. Since Amelia increases the distance of her longest run each week

by a constant amount, the amount she increases the distance of her longest

run each week is  26 − 8 

16 − 4=  12 = 2  = 1.5 miles.

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because none of these training schedules

would result in increasing Amelia’s longest run from 8 miles in week 4 to

26 miles in week 16. For example, choice A is incorrect because if Amelia

increases the distance of her longest run by 0.5 miles each week and has

her longest run of 8 miles in week 4, her longest run in week 16 would be

8 + 0.5 ∙ 12 = 14 miles, not 26 miles.

QUESTION 8.

Choice A is correct. For an equation of a line in the form y = mx + b, the

constant m is the slope of the line. Tus, the line represented by y = −3x + 4

has slope −3. Lines that are parallel have the same slope. To find out which

of the given equations represents a line with the same slope as the line

represented by y = −3x + 4, one can rewrite each equation in the form

y = mx + b, that is, solve each equation for y. Choice A, 6x + 2y = 15, can

be rewritten as 2y = −6x + 15 by subtracting 6x from each side of the equa-

tion. Ten, dividing each side of 2y = −6x + 15 by 2 gives y = − ^_ 

2x +  

2  =

−3x +  15  

2. Terefore, this line has slope −3 and is parallel to the line repre-

sented by y = −3x + 4. (Te lines are parallel, not coincident, because they

have different y-intercepts.)

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect and may be the result of common misun-

derstandings about which value in the equation of a line represents the slope

of the line.

QUESTION 9.

Choice D is correct. Te question states that √  

x − a

= x − 4 and that a = 2,

so substituting 2 for a in the equation yields √ 

x − 2

= x − 4. To solve for x,

square each side of the equation, which gives ( √ 

x − 2

) ² = ( x − 4 )², or x − 2 =

( x − 4 )². Ten, expanding ( x − 4 )² yields x − 2 = x² −8x + 16, or 0 = x² − 9x + 18.

Factoring the right-hand side gives 0 = (x − 3)(x − 6), and so x = 3 or x = 6.

However, for x = 3, the original equation becomes √ 

3 − 2

= 3 − 4, which yields

1 = −1, which is not true. Hence, x = 3 is an extraneous solution that arose from

squaring each side of the equation. For x = 6, the original equation becomes

√ 

6 − 2

= 6 − 4, which yields √ 

= 2, or 2 = 2. Since this is true, the solution set

of √ 

x − 2

= x − 4 is {6}.

Choice A is incorrect because it includes the extraneous solution in the solu-

tion set. Choice B is incorrect and may be the result of a calculation or fac-

toring error. Choice C is incorrect because it includes only the extraneous

solution, and not the correct solution, in the solution set.

QUESTION 10.

t + 5

Choice D is correct. Multiplying each side of  

10 by t − 5 gives t + 5 =

t − 5=

10(t − 5). Distributing the 10 over the values in the parentheses yields t + 5 =

10t − 50. Subtracting t from each side of the equation gives 5 = 9t − 50, and

then adding 50 to each side gives 55 = 9t. Finally, dividing each side by 9 yields

t =  9 .

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect and may be the result of calculation errors

or using the distribution property improperly.

QUESTION 11.

Choice C is correct. Since y = (2x − 3)(x + 9) and x = 2y + 5, it follows

that x = 2( ( 2x − 3 )( x + 9 ) ) + 5 = 4x² + 30x − 54. Tis can be rewritten

as 4x² + 29x − 54 = 0. Because the discriminant of this quadratic equa-

tion, 29² − (4)(−54) = 29² + 4(54), is positive, this equation has 2 distinct

roots. Using each of the roots as the value of x and finding y from the equa-

tion x = 2y + 5 gives 2 ordered pairs (x, y) that satisfy the given system of

equations. Since no other value of x satisfies 4x² + 29x − 54 = 0, there are

no other ordered pairs that satisfy the given system. Terefore, there are

2 ordered pairs (x, y) that satisfy the given system of equations.

Choices A and B are incorrect and may be the result of either a miscalculation

or a conceptual error. Choice D is incorrect because a system of one quadratic

equation and one linear equation cannot have infinitely many solutions.

QUESTION 12.

Choice C is correct. Since the price of Ken’s sandwich was x dollars, and

Paul’s sandwich was $1 more, the price of Paul’s sandwich was x + 1 dollars.

Tus, the total cost of the sandwiches was 2x + 1 dollars. Since this cost

was split evenly, Ken and Paul each paid  2x2  1 

= x + 0.5 dollars plus a 20%

tip. Afer adding the 20% tip, each of them paid (x + 0.5) + 0.2(x + 0.5) =

1.2(x + 0.5) = 1.2x + 0.6 dollars.

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Tese expressions do not model the given

context. Tey may be the result of errors in setting up the expression or of

calculation errors.

QUESTION 13.

Choice B is correct. One can find the intersection points of the two graphs

by setting the functions f(x) and g(x) equal to one another and then solving

for x. Tis yields 8x² − 2 = −8x² + 2. Adding 8x² and 2 to each side of the

equation gives 16x² = 4. Ten dividing each side by 16 gives x² =  ^_ 

4, and then

taking the square root of each side gives x = ±  ^_ 

2. From the graph, the value

of k is the x-coordinate of the point of intersection on the positive x-axis.

Terefore, k =  ^_ 

Alternatively, since ( k, 0 ) lies on the graph of both f and g, it follows that

f(k) = g(k) = 0. Thus, evaluating f(x) = 8x² − 2 at x = k gives 0 = 8k² − 2.

Adding 2 to each side yields 2 = 8k² and then dividing each side by 8

gives  ^_ 

4 = k2. Taking the square root of each side then gives k = ± 2 . From the

graph, k is positive, so k =  ^_ 

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect and may be the result of calculation errors

in solving for x or k.

QUESTION 14.

Choice A is correct. To rewrite  8 − i  in the standard form a + bi, multiply

3 − 2i

the numerator and denominator of  8 − i  by the conjugate, 3 + 2i. Tis gives

3 − 2i

( 8 − i  3 − 2i)(3 + 2i  )

. Since i² = −1, this last fraction

3² − (2i)²

=  26 13 3i,

which simplifies to 2 + i.

9 − (−4) 

Terefore, when  8 − i  is rewritten in the standard form a + bi, the value

3 − 2i

of a is 2.

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect and may be the result of errors in sym-

bolic manipulation. For example, choice B could be the result of mistakenly

rewriting  8 − i  

as  ^_ 

3 − 2i

3 +  2 i.

QUESTION 15.

Choice B is correct. Te given quadratic equation can be rewritten as

2x² − kx − 4p = 0. Applying the quadratic formula,  −b ± √ 

to this equa-

k² + 32p 

√ 

tion with a = 2, b = −k, and c = −4p gives the solutions  ^_ 

4 ±  

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect and may be the result of errors in applying

the quadratic formula.

QUESTION 16.

The correct answer is 9. Since the three shelves of the triangular shelf sys-

tem are parallel, the three triangles in the figure are similar. Since the shelves

divide the lef side of the largest triangle in the ratio 2 to 3 to 1, the similarity

ratios of the triangles are as follows.

Smallest to middle: 2 to 5

Smallest to largest: 2 to 6, or 1 to 3

Middle to largest: 5 to 6

Te height of the largest shampoo bottle that can stand upright on the mid-

dle shelf is equal to the height of the middle shelf. Te height of the entire

triangular shelf system is 18 inches. Tis is the height of the largest triangle.

Te height of the middle shelf is the height of the middle triangle minus

the height of the smallest triangle. Since the similarity ratio of the mid-

dle triangle to the largest triangle is 5 to 6, the height of the middle shelf

is  ^_ 

6(18) = 15 inches. Since the similarity ratio of the smallest triangle to the

largest triangle is 1 to 3, the height of the middle shelf is  ^_ 

3(18) = 6 inches.

Terefore, the height of the middle shelf is 9 inches.

QUESTION 17.

The correct answer is .6 or  ^_  

5. Te angles marked x° and y° are acute

angles in a right triangle. Tus, they are complementary angles. By the

complementary angle relationship between sine and cosine, it follows that

sin(x°) = cos(y°). Terefore, the cosine of y° is .6. Either .6 or the equivalent

fraction  ^_ 

5 may be gridded as the correct answer.

Alternatively, since the sine of x° is .6, the ratio of the side opposite the x°

angle to the hypotenuse is .6. Te side opposite the x° angle is the side adja-

cent to the y° angle. Tus, the ratio of the side adjacent to the y° angle to the

hypotenuse, which is equal to the cosine of y°, is equal to .6.

QUESTION 18.

The correct answer is 5. Te four-term polynomial expression can be fac-

tored completely, by grouping, as follows:

( x³ − 5x² ) + ( 2x − 10 ) = 0

x² ( x − 5 ) + 2 ( x − 5 ) = 0

( x − 5 )( x² + 2 ) = 0

By the zero product property, set each factor of the polynomial equal to 0

and solve each resulting equation for x. Tis gives x = 5 or x = ±i√ 

2 ,

respec-

tively. Because the question asks for the real value of x that satisfies the equa-

tion, the correct answer is 5.

QUESTION 19.

The correct answer is 0. Multiplying each side of −3x + 4y = 20 by 2 gives

−6x + 8y = 40. Adding each side of −6x + 8y = 40 to the corresponding

side of 6x + 3y = 15 gives 11y = 55, or y = 5. Finally, substituting 5 for y in

6x + 3y = 15 gives 6x + 3(5) = 15, or x = 0.

QUESTION 20.

The correct answer is 25. In the mesosphere, an increase of 10 kilome-

ters in the distance above Earth results in a decrease in the temperature by

k° Celsius where k is a constant. Tus, the temperature in the mesosphere is

linearly dependent on the distance above Earth. Using the values provided

and the slope formula, one can calculate the unit rate of change for the tem-

perature in the mesosphere to be  −80 − 50 ) 

=  −75

  . The slope indi-

30  =  −1

cates that, within the mesosphere, if the distance above Earth increases by 1

kilometer, the temperature decreases by 2.5° Celsius. Terefore, if the dis-

tance above Earth increases by ( 1 × 10 ) = 10 kilometers, the temperature will

decrease by ( 2.5 × 10 ) = 25° Celsius. Tus, the value of k is 25.

Section 4: Math Test — Calculator

QUESTION 1.

Choice B is correct. Let m be the number of movies Jill rented online during

the month. Since the monthly membership fee is $9.80 and there is an addi-

tional fee of $1.50 to rent each movie online, the total of the membership fee

and the movie rental fees, in dollars, can be written as 9.80 + 1.50m. Since

the total of these fees for the month was $12.80, the equation 9.80 + 1.50m =

12.80 must be true. Subtracting 9.80 from each side and then dividing each

side by 1.50 yields m = 2.

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect and may be the result of errors in setting

up or solving the equation that represents the context.

QUESTION 2.

Choice C is correct. Donald believes he can increase his typing speed by

5 words per minute each month. Terefore, in m months, he believes he

can increase his typing speed by 5m words per minute. Because he is cur-

rently able to type at a speed of 180 words per minute, he believes that in

m months, he will be able to increase his typing speed to 180 = 5m words

per minute.

Choice A is incorrect because the expression indicates that Donald currently

types 5 words per minute and will increase his typing speed by 180 words

per minute each month. Choice B is incorrect because the expression indi-

cates that Donald currently types 225 words per minute, not 180 words

per minute. Choice D is incorrect because the expression indicates that

Donald will decrease, not increase, his typing speed by 5 words per minute

each month.

QUESTION 3.

Choice C is correct. Because there are 16 ounces in 1 pound, a 3-pound pizza

weighs 3 × 16 = 48 ounces. One half of the pizza weighs  ^_ 

2 × 48 = 24 ounces,

and one-third of the half weighs  ^_ 

3 × 24 = 8 ounces.

Alternatively, since  ^_ 

2 ×  3  =  6 , cutting the pizza into halves and then into

thirds results in a pizza that is cut into sixths. Terefore, each slice of the

48-ounce pizza weighs  ^_ 

6 × 48 = 8 ounces.

Choice A is incorrect and is the result of cutting each half into sixths rather

than thirds. Choice B is incorrect and is the result of cutting each half into

fourths rather than thirds. Choice D is incorrect and is the result of cutting

the whole pizza into thirds.

QUESTION 4.

Choice B is correct. Because Nick surveyed a random sample of the fresh-

man class, his sample was representative of the entire freshman class. Tus,

the percent of students in the entire freshman class expected to prefer the

Fall Festival in October is appropriately estimated by the percent of students

who preferred it in the sample, 25.6%. Tus, of the 225 students in the fresh-

man class, approximately 225 × 0.256 = 57.6 students would be expected

to prefer having the Fall Festival in October. Of the choices given, this is

closest to 60.

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Tese choices may be the result of misap-

plying the concept of percent or of calculation errors.

QUESTION 5.

Choice B is correct. Te density of an object is equal to the mass of the

object divided by the volume of the object, which can be expressed as

density =   mass   

volume. Tus, if an object has a density of 3 grams per milliliter

24 grams

and a mass of 24 grams, the equation becomes 3 grams/milliliter =  

volume .

24 gr ams

Tis can be rewritten as volume =

3 grams/milliliter= 8 milliliters.

Choice A is incorrect and be may be the result of confusing the density and

the volume and setting up the density equation as 24 =  

Choice C is

volume.

incorrect and may be the result of a conceptual error that leads to subtract-

ing 3 from 24. Choice D is incorrect and may be the result of confusing the

mass and the volume and setting up the density equation as 24 =  vol3 me.

QUESTION 6.

Choice A is correct. Let a be the number of hours Angelica worked last

week. Since Raul worked 11 more hours than Angelica, Raul worked a + 11

hours last week. Since they worked a combined total of 59 hours, the equa-

tion a + (a + 11) = 59 must hold. Tis equation can be simplified to 2a + 11 = 59,

or 2a = 48. Terefore, a = 24, and Angelica worked 24 hours last week.

Choice B is incorrect because it is the number of hours Raul worked last week.

Choice C is incorrect. If Angelica worked 40 hours and Raul worked 11 hours

more, Raul would have worked 51 hours, and the combined total number of

hours they worked would be 91, not 59. Choice D is incorrect and may be the

result of solving the equation a + 11 = 59 rather than a + (a + 11) = 59.

QUESTION 7.

Choice A is correct. According to the table, of the 50 movies with the great-

est ticket sales in 2012, 4 are comedy movies with a PG-13 rating. Terefore,

the proportion of the 50 movies with the greatest ticket sales in 2012 that are

comedy movies with a PG-13 rating is  4 ,

or equivalently,  2  

25.

Choice B is incorrect;  9  is the proportion of the 50 movies with the great-

est ticket sales in 2012 that are comedy movies, regardless of rating. Choice

C is incorrect;  2  

11= 2

2  is the proportion of movies with a PG-13 rating that

are comedy movies. Choice D is incorrect;  11 =  22 is the proportion of the

50 movies with the greatest ticket sales in 2012 that have a rating of PG-13.

QUESTION 8.

Choice D is correct. Te quadrants of the xy-plane are defined as follows:

Quadrant I is above the x-axis and to the right of the y-axis; Quadrant II is

above the x-axis and to the lef of the y-axis; Quadrant III is below the x-axis

and to the lef of the y-axis; and Quadrant IV is below the x-axis and to the

right of the y-axis. It is possible for line  to pass through Quadrants II, III,

and IV, but not Quadrant I, only if line  has negative x- and y-intercepts.

Tis implies that line  has a negative slope, since between the negative

x-intercept and the negative y-intercept the value of x increases (from nega-

tive to zero) and the value of y decreases (from zero to negative); so the quo-

tient of the change in y over the change in x, that is, the slope of line , must

be negative.

Choice A is incorrect because a line with an undefined slope is a vertical

line, and if a vertical line passes through Quadrant IV, it must pass through

Quadrant I as well. Choice B is incorrect because a line with a slope of zero

is a horizontal line and, if a horizontal line passes through Quadrant II, it

must pass through Quadrant I as well. Choice C is incorrect because if a

line with a positive slope passes through Quadrant IV, it must pass through

Quadrant I as well.

QUESTION 9.

Choice B is correct. According to the table, in 2012 there was a total of

14,766 + 47,896 = 62,662 registered voters between 18 and 44 years old, and

3,453 + 11,237 = 14,690 of them were from the Midwest region. Terefore,

the probability that a randomly chosen registered voter who was between 18

and 44 years old in 2012 was from Midwest region is  14,690 

62,662≈ 0.234. Of the

given choices, 0.25 is closest to this value.

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect and may be the result of errors in selecting

the correct proportion or in calculating the correct value.

QUESTION 10.

Choice A is correct. According to the graph, the animal with the longest ges-

tation period (60 days) has a life expectancy of 3 years.

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. All the animals that have a life expectancy

of 4, 8, or 10 years have a gestation period that is shorter than 60 days, which

is the longest gestation period.

QUESTION 11.

Choice A is correct. Te ratio of life expectancy to gestation period for

7 years

the animal represented by point A is approximately  

23 days, or about

0.3 years/day, which is greater than the ratio for the animals represented by

the other labeled points (the ratios for points B, C, and D, in units of years

of life expectancy per day of gestation, are approximately  8 ,

 8 ,

and  10 

respectively, each of which is less than 0.2 years/day).

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect and may be the result of errors in calculat-

ing the ratio or in reading the graph.

QUESTION 12.

Choice C is correct. All of the given choices are polynomials. If the graph of

a polynomial function f in the xy-plane has an x-intercept at b, then (x − b)

must be a factor of f(x). Since −3, −1, and 1 are each x-intercepts of the graph

of f, it follows that (x + 3), (x +1), and (x − 1) must each be a factor of f(x).

Te factored polynomial function in choice C is the only polynomial given

with these 3 factors.

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not contain all three fac-

tors that must exist if the graph of the polynomial function f has x-intercepts

at −3, −1, and 1.

QUESTION 13.

Choice C is correct. Te mosquito population starts at 100 in week 0 and

then is multiplied by a factor of 10 every 5 weeks. Tus, if P(t) is the mos-

which indicates an exponential growth relationship.

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect and may be the result of an incorrect

interpretation of the relationship or errors in modeling the relationship.

QUESTION 14.

Choice D is correct. According to the given formula, the amount of

money generated for a year at 5% interest, compounded monthly, is

1,000

⁵ 

¹², whereas the amount of money generated at 3% inter-

( ^{1 +}

1,200 )

est, compounded monthly, is 1,000

¹². Terefore, the difference

( ^{1 +}

1,200 )

between these two amounts, 1,000

⁵ 

¹² − 1,000

¹², shows

( ^{1 +}

1,200)

( ^{1 +}

1,200)

how much additional money is generated at an interest rate of 5% than at an

interest rate of 3%.

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect and may be the result of misinterpreting

the given formula. For example, the expression in choice C gives how many

times as much money, not how much additional money, is generated at an

interest rate of 5% than at an interest rate of 3%.

QUESTION 15.

Choice B is correct. Te graph of y = ax^b, where a is positive and b is nega-

tive, has a positive y-intercept and rapidly decreases (in particular, decreases

at a faster rate than a linear function) toward the x-axis as x increases. Of the

scatterplots shown, only the one in choice B would be appropriately mod-

eled by such a function.

Choice A is incorrect, as this scatterplot is appropriately modeled by a linear

function. Choice C is incorrect, as this scatterplot is appropriately modeled

by an increasing function. Choice D is incorrect, as this scatterplot shows no

clear relationship between x and y.

QUESTION 16.

Choice A is correct. Te total cost y, in dollars, of buying the materials and

renting the tools for x days from Store A and Store B is found by substituting

the respective values for these stores from the table into the given equation,

y = M + (W + K)x, as shown below.

Store A: y = 750 + (15 + 65)x = 750 + 80x

Store B: y = 600 + (25 + 80)x = 600 + 105x

Tus, the number of days, x, for which the total cost of buying the materials

and renting the tools from Store B is less than or equal to the total cost of

buying the materials and renting the tools from Store A can be found by solv-

ing the inequality 600 + 105x ≤ 750 + 70x. Subtracting 80x and 600 from each

side of 600 + 105x ≤ 750 + 70x and combining like terms yields 25x ≤ 150.

Dividing each side of 25x ≤ 150 by 25 yields x ≤ 6.

Choice B is incorrect. Te inequality x ≥ 6 is the number of days for which

the total cost of buying the materials and renting the tools from Store B is

greater than or equal to the total cost of buying the materials and renting the

tools from Store A. Choices C and D are incorrect and may be the result of

an error in setting up or simplifying the inequality.

QUESTION 17.

Choice D is correct. Te total cost, y, of buying the materials and renting the

tools in terms of the number of days, x, is given as y = M + (W + K)x. If this

relationship is graphed in the xy-plane, the slope of the graph is equal to W + K,

which is the daily rental cost of the wheelbarrow plus the daily rental cost of the

concrete mixer, that is, the total daily rental costs of the tools.

Choice A is incorrect because the total cost of the project is y. Choice B is

incorrect because the total cost of the materials is M, which is the y-intercept

of the graph of y = M + (W + K)x. Choice C is incorrect because the total daily

cost of the project is the total cost of the project divided by the total number of

days the project took and, since materials cost more than 0 dollars, this is not

the same as the total daily rental costs.

QUESTION 18.

Choice C is correct. Te volume V of a right circular cylinder is given by

the formula V = πr²h, where r is the base radius of the cylinder and h is

the height of the cylinder. Since each glass has an internal diameter of 3

inches, each glass has a base radius of  ^_ 

2 inches. Since the height of the milk

in each glass is 6 inches, the volume of milk in each glass is V = π

( _ 2 )²( 6 ) ≈

42.41 cubic inches. Te total number of glasses Jim can pour from 1 gallon is

number of cubic inches in 1 gallon

equal to

=  231 ,

which is approximately

number of cubic inches in 1 glass

42.41

5.45 glasses. Since the question asks for the largest number of full glasses Jim

can pour, the number of glasses needs to be rounded down to 5.

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect and may be the result of conceptual

errors or calculation errors. For example, choice D is incorrect because even

though Jim can pour more than 5 full glasses, he will not have enough milk

to pour a full 6th glass.

QUESTION 19.

Choice A is correct. Adding 4 to each side of the inequality 3p − 2 ≥ 1 yields

the inequality 3p + 2 ≥ 5. Terefore, the least possible value of 3p + 2 is 5.

Choice B is incorrect because it gives the least possible value of 3p, not of

3p + 2. Choice C is incorrect. If the least possible value of 3p + 2 were 2, then

it would follow that 3p + 2 ≥ 2. Subtracting 4 from each side of this inequal-

ity would yield 3p − 2 ≥ −2. Tis contradicts the given inequality, 3p − 2 ≥ 1.

Terefore, the least possible value of 3p + 2 cannot be 2. Choice D is incor-

rect because it gives the least possible value of p, not of 3p +2.

QUESTION 20.

Choice C is correct. Since the biomass of the lake doubles each year, the bio-

mass starts at a positive value and then increases exponentially over time. Of

the graphs shown, only the graph in choice C is of an increasing exponential

function.

Choice A is incorrect because the biomass of the lake must start at a positive

value, not zero. Furthermore, this graph shows linear growth, not exponen-

tial growth. Choice B is incorrect because the biomass of the lake must start

at a positive value, not zero. Furthermore, this graph has vertical segments

and is not a function. Choice D is incorrect because the biomass of the lake

does not remain the same over time.

QUESTION 21.

Choice C is correct. Te exact coordinates of the scatterplot in the xy-plane

cannot be read from the bar graph provided. However, for a data point to be

above the line y = x, the value of y must be greater than the value of x. Tat

is, the consumption in 2010 must be greater than the consumption in 2000.

Tis occurs for 3 types of energy sources shown in the bar graph: biofuels,

geothermal, and wind.

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect and may be the result of a conceptual error

in presenting the data shown in a scatterplot. For example, choice B is incorrect

because there are 2 data points in the scatterplot that lie below the line y = x.

QUESTION 22.

Choice B is correct. Reading the graph, the amount of wood power used

in 2000 was 2.25 quadrillion BTUs and the amount used in 2010 was

2.00 quadrillion BTUs. To find the percent decrease, find the difference

between the two numbers, divide by the original value, and then multiply

by 100:  2.22.25 .00 

× 100 =  0.25 

2.25× 100 ≈ 11.1 percent. Of the choices given,

11% is closest to the percent decrease in the consumption of wood power

from 2000 to 2010.

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect and may be the result of errors in reading

the bar graph or in calculating the percent decrease.

QUESTION 23.

Choice B is correct. Te standard deviation is a measure of how far the data

set values are from the mean. In the data set for City A, the large majority

of the data are in three of the five possible values, which are the three val-

ues closest to the mean. In the data set for City B, the data are more spread

out, with many values at the minimum and maximum values. Terefore, by

observation, the data for City B have a larger standard deviation.

Alternatively, one can calculate the mean and visually inspect the difference

between the data values and the mean. For City A the mean is  1,21 5 ≈ 78.8,

and for City B the mean is  1,21 7 ≈ 78.0. Te data for City A are closely clus-

tered near 79, which indicates a small standard deviation. The data for City B

are spread out away from 78, which indicates a larger standard deviation.

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect and may be the result of misconceptions

about the standard deviation.

QUESTION 24.

Choice C is correct. Since segment AB is a diameter of the circle, it follows

that arc

DB  is a semicircle. Tus, the circumference of the circle is twice

the length of arc ADB

 which is 2(8π) = 16π. Since the circumference of a cir-

cle is 2π times the radius of the circle, the radius of this circle is 16π divided

by 2π, which is equal to 8.

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect and may be the result of losing track of

factors of 2 or of solving for the diameter of the circle instead of the radius.

For example, choice D is the diameter of the circle.

QUESTION 25.

Choice B is correct. In f(x), factoring out the greatest common factor, 2x, yields

f(x) = 2x ( x² + 3x + 2 ). It is given that g(x) = x² + 3x + 2, so using substitution,

f(x) can be rewritten as f(x) = 2x ∙ g(x). In the equation p(x) = f(x) + 3g(x), sub-

stituting 2x ∙ g(x) for f(x) yields p(x) = 2x ∙ g(x) + 3 ∙ g(x). In p(x), factoring out

the greatest common factor, g(x), yields p(x) = ( g( x ) ₎( 2x + 3 ). Because 2x + 3

is a factor of p(x), it follows that p(x) is divisible by 2x + 3.

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because 2x + 3 is not a factor of the poly-

nomials h(x), r(x), or s(x). Using the substitution f(x) = 2x ∙ g(x), and factor-

ing further, h(x), r(x), and s(x) can be rewritten as follows:

h(x) = (x + 1)(x + 2)(2x + 1)

r(x) = (x + 1)(x + 2)(4x + 3)

s(x) = 2 (x + 1)(x + 2)(3x + 1)

Because 2x + 3 is not a factor of h(x), r(x), or s(x), it follows that h(x), r(x),

and s(x) are not divisible by 2x + 3.

QUESTION 26.

Choice C is correct. If −y < x < y, the value of x is either between −y and 0

or between 0 and y, so statement I, |x| < y is true. It is possible that the value

of x is greater than zero, but x could be negative. For example, a counter-

example to statement II, x > 0, is x = −2 and y = 3, yielding −3 < −2 < 3, so

the given condition is satisfied. Statement III must be true since −y < x < y

implies that −y < y, so y must be greater than 0. Terefore, statements I and

III are the only statements that must be true.

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because each of these choices either omits

a statement that must be true or includes a statement that could be false.

QUESTION 27.

Choice D is correct. To interpret what the number 61 in the equation of the

line of best fit represents, one must first understand what the data in the

scatterplot represent. Each of the points in the scatterplot represents a large

US city, graphed according to its population density (along the horizontal

axis) and its relative housing cost (along the vertical axis). Te line of best

fit for this data represents the expected relative housing cost for a certain

population density, based on the data points in the graph. Tus, one might

say, on average, a city of population density x is expected to have a relative

housing cost of y%, where y = 0.0125x + 61. Te number 61 in the equation

represents the y-intercept of the line of best fit, in that when the population

density, x, is 0, there is an expected relative housing cost of 61%. Tis might

not make the best sense within the context of the problem, in that when the

population density is 0, the population is 0, so there probably wouldn’t be

any housing costs. However, it could be interpreted that for cities with low

population densities, housing costs were likely around or above 61% (since

below 61% would be for cities with negative population densities, which is

impossible).

Choice A is incorrect because it interprets the values of the vertical axis as

dollars and not percentages. Choice B is incorrect because the lowest hous-

ing cost is about 61% of the national average, not 61% of the highest housing

cost. Choice C is incorrect because one cannot absolutely assert that no city

with a low population density had housing costs below 61% of the national

average, as the model shows that it is unlikely, but not impossible.

QUESTION 28.

Choice D is correct. Te minimum value of a quadratic function appears as

a constant in the vertex form of its equation, which can be found from the

standard form by completing the square. Rewriting f(x) = (x + 6)(x − 4) in

standard form gives f(x) = x² + 2x − 24. Since the coefficient of the linear

term is 2, the equation for f(x) can be rewritten in terms of (x + 1)² as follows:

f(x) = x² + 2x − 24 = (x² + 2x + 1) − 1 − 24 = (x + 1)² − 25

Since the square of a real number is always nonnegative, the vertex form

f(x) = (x + 1)² − 25 shows that the minimum value of f is −25 (and occurs at

x = −1). Terefore, this equivalent form of f shows the minimum value of f

as a constant.

Choices A and C are incorrect because they are not equivalent to the given

equation for f. Choice B is incorrect because the minimum value of f, which

is −25, does not appear as a constant or a coefficient.

QUESTION 29.

Choice B is correct. Since the average of 2 numbers is the sum of

the 2 numbers divided by 2, the equations x =  m 2 9,

y =  2m 2 15 and

x + y + z

z =  3m 2 18 are true. Te average of x, y, and z is given by  

Substituting the

preceding expressions in m for each variable gives

m + 9

+  2m 2 15 

+  3m 2 18 

. Tis fraction can be simplified to 6m 6 42

or m + 7.

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect and may be the result of conceptual errors or

calculation errors. For example, choice D is the sum of x, y, and z, not the average.

QUESTION 30.

Choice D is correct. Te equation f(x) = k gives the solutions to the system

of equations y = f(x) = x³ − x² − x −  11  

4 and y = k. A real solution of a system

of two equations corresponds to a point of intersection of the graphs of the

two equations in the xy-plane. Te graph of y = k is a horizontal line that

contains the point (0, k). Tus, the line with equation y = −3 is a horizontal

line that intersects the graph of the cubic equation three times, and it follows

that the equation f(x) = −3 has three real solutions.

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the graphs of the corresponding

equations are horizontal lines that do not intersect the graph of the cubic

equation three times.

QUESTION 31.

The correct answer is 1160. Te pool contains 600 gallons of water before

the hose is turned on, and water flows from the hose into the pool at a rate

of 8 gallons per minute. Tus, the number of gallons of water in the pool

m minutes afer the hose is turned on is given by the expression 600 + 8m.

Terefore, afer 70 minutes, there will be 600 + 8(70) = 1160 gallons of water

in the pool.

QUESTION 32.

The correct answer is  ^_ or .5. Te equation that models the normal

systolic blood pressure, in millimeters of mercury, for a male x years old,

P = x_+2 20,

can be rewritten as P =  ^_ 

2 x + 110. For each increase of 1 year

in age, the value of x increases by 1; hence, P becomes  ^_ 

2(x + 1) + 110 =

( _ 2 x + 110 )+  _ 2. Tat is, P increases by  _ 2 millimeter of mercury. Either the

fraction  ^_ 

2or its decimal equivalent, .5, may be gridded as the correct answer.

QUESTION 33.

The correct answer is 4.55. Since there are 16 Roman digits in a Roman

pes, 75 digits is equal to  75 

16pes. Since 1 pes is equal to 11.65 inches,  16 pes is

equal to  75  

16(11.65) inches. Since 12 inches is equal to 1 foot,  

16(11.65) inches

is equal to  75 

16(11.65)(¹

2  )^{4.55078125 feet. Terefore, 75 digits is equal to}

11.65)

16(

( 1  12) ^{= 4.55078125 feet. Rounded to the nearest hundredth of a}

foot, 75 Roman digits is equal to 4.55 feet.

QUESTION 34.

The correct answer is 150. In the study, 240 male and 160 plus another

100 female bats have been tagged, so that 500 bats have been tagged alto-

gether. If x more male bats must be tagged for  ^_ 

5 of the total number of bats

to be male, the proportion  total bats 

=  240 + x 

500 + x^{=  5 must be true. Multiplying}

each side of  240 + x =  _ 

500 + x

5 by 5(500 + x) gives 5(240 + x) = 3(500 + x), which

simplifies to 1200 + 5x = 1500 + 3x. Terefore, x = 150, and 150 more male

bats must be tagged; this will bring the total to 390 male bats out of 650 bats,

which is equal to  ^_ 

QUESTION 35.

The correct answer is 2.25 or  ^_ 

4. Let qs be the dynamic pressure of the slower

fluid moving with velocity v_s , and let q_f be the dynamic pressure of the faster

fluid moving with velocity v_f . Ten v_f = 1.5v_s .

Given the equation q =  ^_  

2^nv2, substituting the dynamic pressure and velocity

of the faster fluid gives q_f =  ^_  

2^nvf2. Since vf = 1.5vs, the expression 1.5vs can be

substituted for v_f in this equation, giving q_f =  ^_ 

2n(1.5vs)². Tis can be rewrit-

ten as q_f = (2.25) ^_ 

2^nvs2 = (2.25)qs. Terefore, the ratio of the dynamic pres-

q_f

2.25q_s

sure of the faster fluid is  

= 2.25. Either 2.25 or the equivalent

q_s

improper fraction  ^_ 

4 may be gridded as the correct answer.

QUESTION 36.

The correct answer is 29, 30, 31, 32, 33, or 34. Since the radius of the cir-

cle is 10, its circumference is 20π. Te full circumference of a circle is 360°.

Tus, an arc of length s on the circle corresponds to a central angle of x°,

where

⁼

, or x = 360  s. Since 5 < s < 6, it follows that 360  

20π

20π(5) < x <

³⁶⁰ 

20π(6), which becomes, to the nearest tenth, 28.6 < x < 34.4. Terefore, the

possible integer values of x are 29, 30, 31, 32, 33, and 34. Any one of these

numbers may be gridded as the correct answer.

QUESTION 37.

The correct answer is .72. According to the analyst’s estimate, the value V,

in dollars, of the stock will decrease by 28% each week for t weeks, where

t = 1, 2, or 3, with its value being given by the formula V = 360(r)^t. Tis

equation is an example of exponential decay. A stock losing 28% of its value

each week is the same as the stock’s value decreasing to 72% of its value from

the previous week, since V − (.28)V = (.72)V. Using this information, afer

1 week the value, in dollars, of the stock will be V = 360(.72); afer 2 weeks

the value of the stock will be V = 360(.72)(.72) = 360(.72)²; and afer 3 weeks

the value of the stock will be V = 360(.72)(.72)(.72) = 360(.72)³. For all of

the values of t in question, namely t = 1, 2, and 3, the equation V = 360(.72)^t

is true. Terefore, the analyst should use .72 as the value of r.

QUESTION 38.

The correct answer is 134. Te analyst’s prediction is that the stock will

lose 28 percent of its value for each of the next three weeks. Tus, the

predicted value of the stock afer 1 week is $360 − (0.28)$360 = $259.20;

afer 2 weeks, $259.20 − (0.28)$259.20 ≈ $186.62; and afer 3 weeks,

$186.62 − (0.28)$186.62 ≈ $134.37. Terefore, to the nearest dollar, the stock

analyst believes the stock will be worth 134 dollars afer three weeks.

Scoring Your

SAT

^® Practice Test #4

Congratulations on completing an SAT^® practice test. To score your test, use these instructions

and the conversion tables and answer key at the end of this document.

Scores Overview

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scores than ever before. Each of the redesigned assessments (SAT, PSAT/NMSQT^®, PSAT™ 10,

and PSAT™ 8/9) will report test scores and cross-test scores on a common scale. Additionally,

subscores will be reported to provide additional diagnostic information to students, educators,

and parents. For more details about scores, visit collegereadiness.collegeboard.org/sat/scores.

The practice test you completed was written by the College Board’s Assessment Design &

Development team using the same processes and review standards used when writing the

actual SAT. Everything from the layout of the page to the construction of the questions accurately

reflects what you’ll see on test day.

How to Calculate Your Practice Test Scores

GET SET UP

 You’ll need the answer sheet that you bubbled in while taking the practice test. You’ll also

need the conversion tables and answer key at the end of this document.

 Using the answer key, count up your total correct answers for each section. You may want

to write the number of correct answers for each section at the bottom of that section in the

answer key.

 Using your marked-up answer key and the conversion tables, follow the directions to get all

of your scores.

SAT Practice Test #4

Created 8/4/2015

GET SECTION AND TOTAL SCORES

Your total score on the SAT practice test is the sum of your Evidence-Based Reading and Writing

Section score and your Math Section score. To get your total score, you will convert what we call

the “raw score” for each section — the number of questions you got right in that section — into

the “scaled score” for that section, then calculate the total score.

GET YOUR EVIDENCE-BASED READING AND WRITING SECTION SCORE

Calculate your SAT Evidence-Based Reading and Writing Section score (it’s on a scale of 200-

800) by first determining your Reading Test score and your Writing and Language Test score.

Here’s how:

 Count the number of correct answers you got on Section 1 (the Reading Test). There is no

penalty for wrong answers. The number of correct answers is your raw score.

 Go to Raw Score Conversion Table 1: Section and Test Scores on page 7. Look in the “Raw Score”

column for your raw score, and match it to the number in the “Reading Test Score” column.

 Do the same with Section 2 to determine your Writing and Language Test score.

 Add your Reading Test score to your Writing and Language Test score.

 Multiply that number by 10. This is your Evidence-Based Reading and Writing Section score.

EXAMPLE: Sofia answered 29 of the 52 questions correctly on the SAT Reading Test and 19 of

the 44 questions correctly on the SAT Writing and Language Test. Using the table on page 7, she

calculates that she received an SAT Reading Test score of 27 and an SAT Writing and Language

Test score of 23. She adds 27 to 23 (gets 50) and then multiplies by 10 to determine her SAT

Evidence-Based Reading and Writing Section score of 500.

GET YOUR MATH SECTION SCORE

Calculate your SAT Math Section score (it’s on a scale of 200-800).

 Count the number of correct answers you got on Section 3 (Math Test — No Calculator) and

Section 4 (Math Test — Calculator). There is no penalty for wrong answers.

 Add the number of correct answers you got on Section 3 (Math Test — No Calculator) and

Section 4 (Math Test — Calculator).

 Use Raw Score Conversion Table 1: Section and Test Scores to turn your raw score into your

Math Section score.

GET YOUR TOTAL SCORE

Add your Evidence-Based Reading and Writing Section score to your Math Section score. The

result is your total score on the SAT Practice Test, on a scale of 400-1600.

SAT Practice Test #4

Created 8/4/2015

GET SUBSCORES

Subscores provide more detailed information about your strengths in specific areas within

literacy and math. They are reported on a scale of 1-15.

HEART OF ALGEBRA

The Heart of Algebra subscore is based on questions from the Math Test that focus on linear

equations and inequalities.

 Add up your total correct answers from the following set of questions:

Math Test - No Calculator: Questions 1-3; 7-8; 12; 19-20

Math Test - Calculator: Questions 1-2; 6; 8; 16-17; 19; 26; 29; 32; 34

Your total correct answers from all of these questions is your raw score.

 Use Raw Score Conversion Table 2: Subscores on page 8 to determine your Heart of Algebra

subscore.

PROBLEM SOLVING AND DATA ANALYSIS

The Problem Solving and Data Analysis subscore is based on questions from the Math Test that

focus on quantitative reasoning, the interpretation and synthesis of data, and solving problems

in rich and varied contexts.

 Add up your total correct answers from the following set of questions:

Math Test - No Calculator: No Questions

Math Test - Calculator: Questions 3-5; 7; 9-11; 13-15; 20-23; 27; 31; 33

Your total correct answers from all of these questions is your raw score.

 Use Raw Score Conversion Table 2: Subscores to determine your Problem Solving and Data

Analysis subscore.

PASSPORT TO ADVANCED MATH

The Passport to Advanced Math subscore is based on questions from the Math Test that focus

on topics central to the ability of students to progress to more advanced mathematics, such

as understanding the structure of expressions, reasoning with more complex equations, and

interpreting and building functions.

 Add up your total correct answers from the following set of questions:

Math Test - No Calculator: Questions 4-6; 9-11; 13; 15; 18

Math Test - Calculator: Questions 12; 25; 28; 30; 35; 37-38

Your total correct answers from all of these questions is your raw score.

 Use Raw Score Conversion Table 2: Subscores to determine your Passport to Advanced

Math subscore.

SAT Practice Test #4

Created 8/4/2015

EXPRESSION OF IDEAS

The Expression of Ideas subscore is based on questions from the Writing and Language Test that

focus on topic development, organization, and rhetorically effective use of language.

 Add up your total correct answers from the following set of questions:

Writing and Language Test: Questions 2; 4-5; 8; 10-11; 14-18; 20; 23; 25-27; 31; 33; 37-39;

41-42; 44

Your total correct answers from all of these questions is your raw score.

 Use Raw Score Conversion Table 2: Subscores to determine your Expression of Ideas subscore.

STANDARD ENGLISH CONVENTIONS

The Standard English Conventions subscore is based on questions from the Writing and

Language Test that focus on sentence structure, usage, and punctuation.

 Add up your total correct answers from the following set of questions:

Writing and LanguageTest: Questions 1; 3; 6-7; 9; 12-13; 19; 21-22; 24; 28-30; 32; 34-36; 40; 43

Your total correct answers from all of these questions is your raw score.

 Use Raw Score Conversion Table 2: Subscores to determine your Standard English

Conventions subscore.

WORDS IN CONTEXT

The Words in Context subscore is based on questions from both the Reading Test and the Writing

and Language Test that address word/phrase meaning in context and rhetorical word choice.

 Add up your total correct answers from the following set of questions:

Reading Test: Questions 3; 9; 13; 18; 24; 31; 33-34; 45; 48

Writing and Language Test: Questions 5; 8; 14; 16; 23; 26; 41-42

Your total correct answers from all of these questions is your raw score.

 Use Raw Score Conversion Table 2: Subscores to determine your Words in Context subscore.

COMMAND OF EVIDENCE

The Command of Evidence subscore is based on questions from both the Reading Test and the

Writing and Language Test that ask you to interpret and use evidence found in a wide range of

passages and informational graphics, such as graphs, tables, and charts.

 Add up your total correct answers from the following set of questions:

Reading Test: Questions 2; 6; 15; 20; 28; 39; 44; 47; 50; 52

Writing and Language Test: Questions 10-11; 18; 20; 25; 31; 37-38

Your total correct answers from all of these questions is your raw score.

 Use Raw Score Conversion Table 2: Subscores to determine your Command of Evidence

subscore.

SAT Practice Test #4

Created 8/4/2015

GET CROSS-TEST SCORES

The new SAT also reports two cross-test scores: Analysis in History/Social Studies and Analysis

in Science. These scores are based on questions in the Reading, Writing and Language, and Math

Tests that ask students to think analytically about texts and questions in these subject areas.

Cross-test scores are reported on a scale of 10-40.

ANALYSIS IN HISTORY/SOCIAL STUDIES

 Add up your total correct answers from the following set of questions:

Reading Test: Questions 11-21; 32-41

Writing and Language Test: Questions 23; 25-27; 31; 33

Math Test - No Calculator: Question 12

Math Test - Calculator: Questions 9; 14; 16-17; 27; 33; 37

Your total correct answers from all of these questions is your raw score.

 Use Raw Score Conversion Table 3: Cross-Test Scores on page 9 to determine your Analysis

in History/Social Studies cross-test score.

ANALYSIS IN SCIENCE

 Add up your total correct answers from the following set of questions:

Reading Test: Questions 22-31; 42-52

Writing and Language Test: Questions 14-18; 20

Math Test - No Calculator: Question 20

Math Test - Calculator: Questions 5; 10-11; 13; 21-22; 32

Your total correct answers from all of these questions is your raw score.

 Use Raw Score Conversion Table 3: Cross-Test Scores to determine your Analysis in Science

cross-test score.

SAT Practice Test #4

Created 8/4/2015

SAT Practice Test #4: Worksheets

ANSWER KEY

Writing and Language Test Answers

Reading Test Answers

1 C

23 C

34 A

45 D

1 B

23 C

34 C

2 D

24 C

35 D

46 A

2 B

24 C

35 C

3 D

25 B

36 B

47 D

3 B

25 B

36 B

4 C

26 C

37 D

48 C

4 A

26 D

37 D

5 A

27 A

38 D

49 D

5 D

27 C

38 A

6 A

28 B

39 D

50 C

6 B

28 A

39 C

7 B

29 B

40 A

51 B

7 D

29 D

40 B

8 D

30 D

41 B

52 A

8 B

30 B

41 D

9 D

20 A

31 D

42 C

9 C

20 C

31 C

42 D

10 A

21 D

32 D

43 B

10 A

21 B

32 B

43 A

11 C

22 A

33 D

44 A

11 C

22 D

33 A

44 B

READING TEST

WRITING AND

RAW SCORE

LANGUAGE TEST

(NUMBER OF

RAW SCORE

CORRECT ANSWERS)

(NUMBER OF

CORRECT ANSWERS)

Math Test

No Calculator Answers

Calculator Answers

1 A

11 C

1 B

11 A

21 C

31 1160

2 A

12 C

2 C

12 C

22 B

32 1/2 or 0.5

3 A

13 B

3 C

13 C

23 B

33 4.55

4 B

14 A

4 B

14 D

24 C

34 150

5 C

15 B

5 B

15 B

25 B

35 9/4 or 2.25

6 B

16 9

6 A

16 A

26 C

36 29, 30, 31, 32, 33, or 34

7 D

17 3/5 or 0.6

7 A

17 D

27 D

37 0.72

8 A

18 5

8 D

18 C

28 D

38 134

9 D

19 0

9 B

19 A

29 B

10 D

20 25

10 A

20 C

30 D

MATH TEST

NO CALCULATOR

CALCULATOR

RAW SCORE

(NUMBER OF

CORRECT ANSWERS)

SAT Practice Test #4

Created 8/4/2015

SAT Practice Test #4: Worksheets

RAW SCORE CONVERSION TABLE 1 SECTION AND TEST SCORES

Raw

Math

Writing and

Raw

Math

Writing and

Score

Reading

Score

Reading Test

Section

Language

Section

Language

(# of correct

Test Score

(# of correct

Score

Test Score

Score

Test Score

answers)

200

580

200

590

210

600

230

600

250

610

270

620

280

630

300

640

320

650

340

660

350

670

360

680

370

690

390

700

410

710

420

710

430

720

450

730

460

730

470

740

480

750

490

750

500

760

510

770

520

780

530

790

540

790

550

800

560

800

570

CONVERSION EQUATION 1 SECTION AND TEST SCORES

Convert

READING TEST

RAW SCORE

SCORE

(0-52)

(10-40)

Convert

x10 =

WRITING AND

READING TEST

READING AND

EVIDENCE-BASED

LANGUAGE TEST

LANGUAGE

SCORE

WRITING

READING AND WRITING

RAW SCORE

TEST SCORE

(10-40)

TEST SCORE

SECTION SCORE

(0-44)

(10-40)

(20-80)

(200-800)

Convert

MATH TEST

MATH SECTION

EVIDENCE-BASED

TOTAL SAT

NO CALCULATOR

CALCULATOR

RAW SCORE

SCORE

READING AND WRITING

SCORE

RAW SCORE

(0-58)

(200-800)

SECTION SCORE

(400-1600)

(0-20)

(0-38)

(200-800)

SAT Practice Test #4

Created 8/4/2015

SAT Practice Test #4: Worksheets

RAW SCORE CONVERSION TABLE 2 SUBSCORES

Raw

Standard

Problem

Expression

Heart of

Passport to

Words in

Command of

Score

English

Solving and

(# of correct

of Ideas

Algebra

Advanced Math

Context

Evidence

answers)

Conventions

Data Analysis

CONVERSION EQUATION 2 SUBSCORES

Convert

HEART OF ALGEBRA

EXPRESSION

COMMAND OF

RAW SCORE

SUBSCORE

OF IDEAS

EVIDENCE

(0-19)

(1-15)

RAW SCORE

SUBSCORE

RAW SCORE

SUBSCORE

(0-24)

(1-15)

(0-18)

(1-15)

Convert

PROBLEM

STANDARD ENGLISH

WORDS IN

SOLVING AND DATA

CONVENTIONS

CONTEXT

ANALYSIS RAW SCORE

ANALYSIS SUBSCORE

RAW SCORE

SUBSCORE

RAW SCORE

SUBSCORE

(0-17)

(1-15)

(0-20)

(1-15)

(0-18)

(1-15)

Convert

PASSPORT TO

ADVANCED MATH

RAW SCORE

SUBSCORE

(0-16)

(1-15)

SAT Practice Test #4

Created 8/4/2015

SAT Practice Test #4: Worksheets

RAW SCORE CONVERSION TABLE 3 CROSS-TEST SCORES

Raw

Analysis in History/

Raw

Analysis in History/

Score

Analysis in Science

Score

Analysis in Science

Social Studies

(# of correct

Cross-Test Score

(# of correct

Cross-Test Score

answers)

CONVERSION EQUATION 3 CROSS-TEST SCORES

Analysis in History/Social Studies

Analysis in Science

Test

Questions

Raw Score

Questions

Raw Score

Reading Test

11-21; 32-41

22-31; 42-52

Writing and

3; 25-27; 31; 33

14-18; 20

Language Test

Math Test

No Calculator

Math Test

9; 14; 16-17;

5; 10-11; 13;

Calculator

27; 33; 37

21-22; 32

Total

Convert

ANALYSIS IN HISTORY/

ANALYSIS IN SCIENCE

SOCIAL STUDIES

RAW SCORE

CROSS-TEST SCORE

RAW SCORE

CROSS-TEST SCORE

(0-35)

(10-40)

(0-35)

(10-40)

SAT Practice Test #4

Created 8/4/2015