SAT
® Practice Test #4
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1
Reading Test
65 MINUTES, 52 QUESTIONS
Turn to Section 1 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.
DIRECTIONS
Each passage or pair of passages below is followed by a number of questions. After reading
each passage or pair, choose the best answer to each question based on what is stated or
implied in the passage or passages and in any accompanying graphics (such as a table or
graph).
Questions 1-10 are based on the following
25
fate into the servant of my will. All this I understand,
passage.
as I understand each detail of the technique by which
this is carried out. What I don’t understand is why I
This passage is adapted from MacDonald Harris,
am so intent on going to this particular place. Who
The Balloonist. ©2011 by The Estate of Donald Heiney.
During the summer of 1897, the narrator of this story, a
wants the North Pole! What good is it! Can you eat
fictional Swedish scientist, has set out for the North Pole
30
it? Will it carry you from Gothenburg to Malmö like
in a hydrogen-powered balloon.
a railway? The Danish ministers have declared from
their pulpits that participation in polar expeditions is
My emotions are complicated and not
beneficial to the soul’s eternal well-being, or so I read
readily verifiable. I feel a vast yearning that is
in a newspaper. It isn’t clear how this doctrine is to
simultaneously a pleasure and a pain. I am certain
be interpreted, except that the Pole is something
35
of the consummation of this yearning, but I don’t
Line
difficult or impossible to attain which must
know yet what form it will take, since I do not
5
nevertheless be sought for, because man is
understand quite what it is that the yearning desires.
condemned to seek out and know everything
For the first time there is borne in upon me the full
whether or not the knowledge gives him pleasure. In
truth of what I myself said to the doctor only an hour
short, it is the same unthinking lust for knowledge
40
ago: that my motives in this undertaking are not
that drove our First Parents out of the garden.
entirely clear. For years, for a lifetime, the machinery
10
And suppose you were to find it in spite of all, this
of my destiny has worked in secret to prepare for this
wonderful place that everybody is so anxious to stand
moment; its clockwork has moved exactly toward
on! What would you find? Exactly nothing.
this time and place and no other. Rising slowly from
A point precisely identical to all the others in a
45
the earth that bore me and gave me sustenance, I am
completely featureless wasteland stretching around it
carried helplessly toward an uninhabited and hostile,
15
for hundreds of miles. It is an abstraction, a
or at best indifferent, part of the earth, littered with
mathematical fiction. No one but a Swedish madman
the bones of explorers and the wrecks of ships, frozen
could take the slightest interest in it. Here I am. The
supply caches, messages scrawled with chilled fingers
wind is still from the south, bearing us steadily
50
and hidden in cairns that no eye will ever see.
northward at the speed of a trotting dog. Behind us,
Nobody has succeeded in this thing, and many have
20
perhaps forever, lie the Cities of Men with their
died. Yet in freely willing this enterprise, in choosing
this moment and no other when the south wind
will carry me exactly northward at a velocity of
eight knots, I have converted the machinery of my
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teacups and their brass bedsteads. I am going forth of
4
my own volition to join the ghosts of Bering and
The sentence in lines 10-13 (“For years . . . other”)
poor Franklin, of frozen De Long and his men.
55
mainly serves to
What I am on the brink of knowing, I now see, is not
an ephemeral mathematical spot but myself. The
A) expose a side of the narrator that he prefers to
doctor was right, even though I dislike him.
keep hidden.
Fundamentally I am a dangerous madman, and what
B) demonstrate that the narrator thinks in a
I do is both a challenge to my egotism and a
60
methodical and scientific manner.
surrender to it.
C) show that the narrator feels himself to be
influenced by powerful and independent forces.
1
D) emphasize the length of time during which the
narrator has prepared for his expedition.
Over the course of the passage, the narrator’s attitude
shifts from
A) fear about the expedition to excitement about it.
5
B) doubt about his abilities to confidence in them.
The narrator indicates that many previous explorers
C) uncertainty of his motives to recognition of
seeking the North Pole have
them.
A) perished in the attempt.
D) disdain for the North Pole to appreciation of it.
B) made surprising discoveries.
C) failed to determine its exact location.
2
D) had different motivations than his own.
Which choice provides the best evidence for the
answer to the previous question?
6
A) Lines 10-12 (“For . . . moment”)
Which choice provides the best evidence for the
B) Lines 21-25 (“Yet . . . will”)
answer to the previous question?
C) Lines 42-44 (“And . . . stand on”)
A) Lines 20-21 (“Nobody . . . died”)
D) Lines 56-57 (“What . . . myself”)
B) Lines 25-27 (“All . . . out”)
C) Lines 31-34 (“The . . . newspaper”)
3
D) Lines 51-53 (“Behind . . . bedsteads”)
As used in lines 1-2, “not readily verifiable” most
nearly means
7
A) unable to be authenticated.
Which choice best describes the narrator’s view of
B) likely to be contradicted.
his expedition to the North Pole?
C) without empirical support.
A) Immoral but inevitable
D) not completely understood.
B) Absurd but necessary
C) Socially beneficial but misunderstood
D) Scientifically important but hazardous
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8
Questions 11-21 are based on the following
passage and supplementary material.
The question the narrator asks in lines 30-31
This passage is adapted from Alan Ehrenhalt, The Great
(“Will it . . . railway”) most nearly implies that
Inversion and the Future of the American City. ©2013 by
A) balloons will never replace other modes of
Vintage. Ehrenhalt is an urbanologist—a scholar of cities
transportation.
and their development. Demographic inversion is a
phenomenon that describes the rearrangement of living
B) the North Pole is farther away than the cities
patterns throughout a metropolitan area.
usually reached by train.
C) people often travel from one city to another
We are not witnessing the abandonment of the
without considering the implications.
suburbs, or a movement of millions of people back to
the city all at once. The 2010 census certainly did not
D) reaching the North Pole has no foreseeable
turn up evidence of a middle-class stampede to the
Line
benefit to humanity.
5
nation’s cities. The news was mixed: Some of the
larger cities on the East Coast tended to gain
population, albeit in small increments. Those in the
9
Midwest, including Chicago, tended to lose
As used in line 49, “take the slightest interest in”
substantial numbers. The cities that showed gains in
most nearly means
10
overall population during the entire decade tended to
be in the South and Southwest. But when it comes to
A) accept responsibility for.
measuring demographic inversion, raw census
B) possess little regard for.
numbers are an ineffective blunt instrument. A closer
C) pay no attention to.
look at the results shows that the most powerful
demographic events of the past decade were the
15
D) have curiosity about.
movement of African Americans out of central cities
(180,000 of them in Chicago alone) and the
settlement of immigrant groups in suburbs, often
10
ones many miles distant from downtown.
As used in line 50, “bearing” most nearly means
20
Central-city areas that gained affluent residents in
A) carrying.
the first part of the decade maintained that
population in the recession years from 2007 to 2009.
B) affecting.
They also, according to a 2011 study by Brookings,
C) yielding.
suffered considerably less from increased
unemployment than the suburbs did. Not many
25
D) enduring.
young professionals moved to new downtown
condos in the recession years because few such
residences were being built. But there is no reason to
believe that the demographic trends prevailing prior
to the construction bust will not resume once that
30
bust is over. It is important to remember that
demographic inversion is not a proxy for population
growth; it can occur in cities that are growing, those
whose numbers are flat, and even in those
undergoing a modest decline in size.
35
America’s major cities face enormous fiscal
problems, many of them the result of public pension
obligations they incurred in the more prosperous
years of the past two decades. Some, Chicago
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40
prominent among them, simply are not producing
where the commercial life of the metropolis was
enough revenue to support the level of public
conducted; it had a factory district just beyond; it had
services to which most of the citizens have grown to
districts of working-class residences just beyond that;
feel entitled. How the cities are going to solve this
70
and it had residential suburbs for the wealthy and the
problem, I do not know. What I do know is that if
upper middle class at the far end of the continuum.
45
fiscal crisis were going to drive affluent professionals
As a family moved up the economic ladder, it also
out of central cities, it would have done so by now.
moved outward from crowded working-class
There is no evidence that it has.
districts to more spacious apartments and,
The truth is that we are living at a moment in
75
eventually, to a suburban home. The suburbs of
which the massive outward migration of the affluent
Burgess’s time bore little resemblance to those at the
50
that characterized the second half of the
end of the twentieth century, but the theory still
twentieth century is coming to an end. And we need
essentially worked. People moved ahead in life by
to adjust our perceptions of cities, suburbs, and
moving farther out.
urban mobility as a result.
80
But in the past decade, in quite a few places, this
Much of our perspective on the process of
model has ceased to describe reality. There are still
55
metropolitan settlement dates, whether we realize it
downtown commercial districts, but there are no
or not, from a paper written in 1925 by the
factory districts lying next to them. There are
University of Chicago sociologist Ernest W. Burgess.
scarcely any factories at all. These close-in parts of
It was Burgess who defined four urban/suburban
85
the city, whose few residents Burgess described as
zones of settlement: a central business district; an
dwelling in “submerged regions of poverty,
60
area of manufacturing just beyond it; then a
degradation and disease,” are increasingly the
residential area inhabited by the industrial and
preserve of the affluent who work in the commercial
immigrant working class; and finally an outer
core. And just as crucially newcomers to America are
enclave of single-family dwellings.
90
not settling on the inside and accumulating the
Burgess was right about the urban America of
resources to move out; they are living in the suburbs
65
1925; he was right about the urban America of 1974.
from day one.
Virtually every city in the country had a downtown,
United States Population by Metropolitan Size/Status, 1980 -2010
Chart 1
Chart 2
2010 Population Shares
Growth Rates by Metro Size
by Metro Size (%)
1980 -1990
16%
14.3
1990 -2000
14%
13.1
non-
12.5
2000 -2010
12%
10.9
metro
10.3
10%
9.0
16.4%
8.8
8%
small
6%
metro
4.5
large metro
4%
18.0%
65.6%
1.8
2%
0%
large metro
small metro
non-metro
(>500k)
(<500k)
Adapted from William H. Frey, “Population Growth in Metro America since 1980: Putting the Volatile 2000s in Perspective.” Published 2012 by Metropolitan
Policy Program, Brookings Institution.
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11
14
Which choice best summarizes the first paragraph of
According to the passage, which choice best
the passage (lines 1-35)?
describes the current financial situation in many
major American cities?
A) The 2010 census demonstrated a sizeable growth
in the number of middle-class families moving
A) Expected tax increases due to demand for
into inner cities.
public works
B) The 2010 census is not a reliable instrument for
B) Economic hardship due to promises made in
measuring population trends in American cities.
past years
C) Population growth and demographic inversion
C) Greater overall prosperity due to an increased
are distinct phenomena, and demographic
inner-city tax base
inversion is evident in many American cities.
D) Insufficient revenues due to a decrease in
D) Population growth in American cities has been
manufacturing
increasing since roughly 2000, while suburban
populations have decreased.
15
Which choice provides the best evidence for the
12
answer to the previous question?
According to the passage, members of which group
A) Lines 36-39 (“America’s . . . decades”)
moved away from central-city areas in large numbers
B) Lines 43-44 (“How . . . not know”)
in the early 2000s?
C) Lines 44-46 (“What . . . now”)
A) The unemployed
D) Lines 48-51 (“The truth . . . end”)
B) Immigrants
C) Young professionals
D) African Americans
16
The passage implies that American cities in 1974
13
A) were witnessing the flight of minority
populations to the suburbs.
In line 34, “flat” is closest in meaning to
B) had begun to lose their manufacturing sectors.
A) static.
C) had a traditional four-zone structure.
B) deflated.
D) were already experiencing demographic
C) featureless.
inversion.
D) obscure.
17
Which choice provides the best evidence for the
answer to the previous question?
A) Lines 54-57 (“Much . . . Ernest W. Burgess”)
B) Lines 58-59 (“It was . . . settlement”)
C) Lines 66-71 (“Virtually . . . continuum”)
D) Lines 72-75 (“As . . . home”)
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18
20
As used in line 68, “conducted” is closest in
According to chart 2, the years 2000-2010 were
meaning to
characterized by
A) carried out.
A) less growth in metropolitan areas of all sizes than
had taken place in the 1990s.
B) supervised.
B) more growth in small metropolitan areas than in
C) regulated.
large metropolitan areas.
D) inhibited.
C) a significant decline in the population of small
metropolitan areas compared to the 1980s.
19
D) roughly equal growth in large metropolitan areas
and nonmetropolitan areas.
The author of the passage would most likely consider
the information in chart 1 to be
A) excellent evidence for the arguments made in the
21
passage.
Chart 2 suggests which of the following about
B) possibly accurate but too crude to be truly
population change in the 1990s?
informative.
A) Large numbers of people moved from suburban
C) compelling but lacking in historical information.
areas to urban areas in the 1990s.
D) representative of a perspective with which the
B) Growth rates fell in smaller metropolitan areas in
author disagrees.
the 1990s.
C) Large numbers of people moved from
metropolitan areas to nonmetropolitan areas in
the 1990s.
D) The US population as a whole grew more in the
1990s than in the 1980s.
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Questions 22-31 are based on the following
45
2,000 Americans are born with a genetic mutation
passage.
that prevents them from making antithrombin.
These patients are prone to clots, especially in their
This passage is adapted from Emily Anthes, Frankenstein's
legs and lungs, and they are at elevated risk of
Cat. ©2013 by Emily Anthes.
suffering from fatal complications during surgery
When scientists first learned how to edit the
50
and childbirth. Supplemental antithrombin can
genomes of animals, they began to imagine all the
reduce this risk, and GTC decided to try to
ways they could use this new power. Creating
manufacture the compound using genetically
Line
brightly colored novelty pets was not a high priority.
engineered goats.
5
Instead, most researchers envisioned far more
To create its special herd of goats, GTC used
consequential applications, hoping to create
55
microinjection, the same technique that produced
genetically engineered animals that saved human
GloFish and AquAdvantage salmon. The company’s
lives. One enterprise is now delivering on this dream.
scientists took the gene for human antithrombin and
Welcome to the world of “pharming,” in which
injected it directly into fertilized goat eggs. Then they
10
simple genetic tweaks turn animals into living
implanted the eggs in the wombs of female goats.
pharmaceutical factories.
60
When the kids were born, some of them proved to be
Many of the proteins that our cells crank out
transgenic, the human gene nestled safely in their
naturally make for good medicine. Our bodies’ own
cells. The researchers paired the antithrombin gene
enzymes, hormones, clotting factors, and antibodies
with a promoter (which is a sequence of DNA that
15
are commonly used to treat cancer, diabetes,
controls gene activity) that is normally active in the
autoimmune diseases, and more. The trouble is that
65
goat’s mammary glands during milk production.
it’s difficult and expensive to make these compounds
When the transgenic females lactated, the promoter
on an industrial scale, and as a result, patients can
turned the transgene on and the goats’ udders filled
face shortages of the medicines they need. Dairy
with milk containing antithrombin. All that was left
20
animals, on the other hand, are expert protein
to do was to collect the milk, and extract and purify
producers, their udders swollen with milk. So the
70
the protein. Et voilà—human medicine! And, for
creation of the first transgenic animals—first mice,
GTC, liquid gold. ATryn hit the market in 2006,
then other species—in the 1980s gave scientists an
becoming the world’s first transgenic animal drug.
idea: What if they put the gene for a human antibody
Over the course of a year, the “milking parlors” on
or enzyme into a cow, goat, or sheep? If they put the
25
GTC’s 300-acre farm in Massachusetts can collect
gene in just the right place, under the control of the
75
more than a kilogram of medicine from a single
right molecular switch, maybe they could engineer
animal.
animals that produced healing human proteins in
their milk. Then doctors could collect medicine by
30
the bucketful.
22
Throughout the 1980s and ’90s, studies provided
proof of principle, as scientists created transgenic
The primary purpose of the passage is to
mice, sheep, goats, pigs, cattle, and rabbits that did in
A) present the background of a medical
fact make therapeutic compounds in their milk.
breakthrough.
At first, this work was merely gee-whiz, scientific
35
B) evaluate the research that led to a scientific
geekery, lab-bound thought experiments come true.
discovery.
That all changed with ATryn, a drug produced by the
Massachusetts firm GTC Biotherapeutics. ATryn is
C) summarize the findings of a long-term research
antithrombin, an anticoagulant that can be used to
project.
40
prevent life-threatening blood clots. The compound,
D) explain the development of a branch of scientific
made by our liver cells, plays a key role in keeping
study.
our bodies clot-free. It acts as a molecular bouncer,
sidling up to clot-forming compounds and escorting
them out of the bloodstream. But as many as 1 in
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23
27
The author’s attitude toward pharming is best
According to the passage, which of the following is
described as one of
true of antithrombin?
A) apprehension.
A) It reduces compounds that lead to blood clots.
B) ambivalence.
B) It stems from a genetic mutation that is rare in
humans.
C) appreciation.
C) It is a sequence of DNA known as a promoter.
D) astonishment.
D) It occurs naturally in goats’ mammary glands.
24
28
As used in line 20, “expert” most nearly means
Which choice provides the best evidence for the
A) knowledgeable.
answer to the previous question?
B) professional.
A) Lines 12-16 (“Many . . . more”)
C) capable.
B) Lines 42-44 (“It acts . . . bloodstream”)
D) trained.
C) Lines 44-46 (“But as . . . antithrombin”)
D) Lines 62-65 (“The researchers . . . production”)
25
What does the author suggest about the transgenic
29
studies done in the 1980s and 1990s?
Which of the following does the author suggest about
A) They were limited by the expensive nature of
the “female goats” mentioned in line 59?
animal research.
A) They secreted antithrombin in their milk after
B) They were not expected to yield products ready
giving birth.
for human use.
B) Some of their kids were not born with the
C) They were completed when an anticoagulant
antithrombin gene.
compound was identified.
C) They were the first animals to receive
D) They focused only on the molecular properties of
microinjections.
cows, goats, and sheep.
D) Their cells already contained genes usually found
in humans.
26
Which choice provides the best evidence for the
30
answer to the previous question?
The most likely purpose of the parenthetical
A) Lines 16-19 (“The trouble . . . need”)
information in lines 63-64 is to
B) Lines 25-29 (“If they . . . milk”)
A) illustrate an abstract concept.
C) Lines 35-36 (“At first . . . true”)
B) describe a new hypothesis.
D) Lines 37-40 (“That all . . . clots”)
C) clarify a claim.
D) define a term.
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31
Questions 32-41 are based on the following
passages.
The phrase “liquid gold” (line 71) most directly
Passage 1 is adapted from Edmund Burke, Reflections on the
suggests that
Revolution in France. Originally published in 1790. Passage 2
A)
GTC has invested a great deal of money in the
is adapted from Thomas Paine, Rights of Man. Originally
microinjection technique.
published in 1791.
B)
GTC’s milking parlors have significantly
Passage 1
increased milk production.
To avoid . . . the evils of inconstancy and
C)
transgenic goats will soon be a valuable asset for
versatility, ten thousand times worse than those of
dairy farmers.
obstinacy and the blindest prejudice, we have
consecrated the state, that no man should approach
Line
D)
ATryn has proved to be a financially beneficial
to look into its defects or corruptions but with due
5
product for GTC.
caution; that he should never dream of beginning its
reformation by its subversion; that he should
approach to the faults of the state as to the wounds of
a father, with pious awe and trembling solicitude. By
this wise prejudice we are taught to look with horror
10
on those children of their country who are prompt
rashly to hack that aged parent in pieces, and put him
into the kettle of magicians, in hopes that by their
poisonous weeds, and wild incantations, they may
regenerate the paternal constitution, and renovate
15
their father’s life.
Society is indeed a contract. Subordinate contracts
for objects of mere occasional interest may be
dissolved at pleasure—but the state ought not to be
considered as nothing better than a partnership
20
agreement in a trade of pepper and coffee, calico or
tobacco, or some other such low concern, to be taken
up for a little temporary interest, and to be dissolved
by the fancy of the parties. It is to be looked on with
other reverence; because it is not a partnership in
25
things subservient only to the gross animal existence
of a temporary and perishable nature. It is a
partnership in all science; a partnership in all art; a
partnership in every virtue, and in all perfection.
As the ends of such a partnership cannot be obtained
30
in many generations, it becomes a partnership not
only between those who are living, but between those
who are living, those who are dead, and those who
are to be born
The municipal corporations of
that universal kingdom are not morally at liberty at
35
their pleasure, and on their speculations of a
contingent improvement, wholly to separate and tear
asunder the bands of their subordinate community,
and to dissolve it into an unsocial, uncivil,
unconnected chaos of elementary principles.
40
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Passage 2
32
Every age and generation must be as free to act for
In Passage 1, Burke indicates that a contract between
itself, in all cases, as the ages and generations which
a person and society differs from other contracts
preceded it. The vanity and presumption of
mainly in its
governing beyond the grave, is the most ridiculous
45
and insolent of all tyrannies.
A) brevity and prominence.
Man has no property in man; neither has any
B) complexity and rigidity.
generation a property in the generations which are to
C) precision and usefulness.
follow. The Parliament or the people of 1688, or of
any other period, had no more right to dispose of the
D) seriousness and permanence.
50
people of the present day, or to bind or to control
them in any shape whatever, than the parliament or
the people of the present day have to dispose of, bind,
33
or control those who are to live a hundred or a
As used in line 4, “state” most nearly refers to a
thousand years hence.
55
Every generation is, and must be, competent
A) style of living.
to all the purposes which its occasions require. It is
B) position in life.
the living, and not the dead, that are to be
C) temporary condition.
accommodated. When man ceases to be, his power
and his wants cease with him; and having no longer
D) political entity.
any participation in the concerns of this world, he
60
has no longer any authority in directing who shall be
its governors, or how its government shall be
34
organized, or how administered
As used in line 22, “low” most nearly means
Those who have quitted the world, and those who
A) petty.
are not yet arrived at it, are as remote from each
65
other, as the utmost stretch of mortal imagination
B) weak.
can conceive. What possible obligation, then, can
C) inadequate.
exist between them; what rule or principle can be laid
D) depleted.
down, that two nonentities, the one out of existence,
and the other not in, and who never can meet in this
70
world, that the one should control the other to the
end of time? . . .
35
The circumstances of the world are continually
It can most reasonably be inferred from Passage
2
changing, and the opinions of men change also; and
that Paine views historical precedents as
as government is for the living, and not for the dead,
75
A) generally helpful to those who want to change
it is the living only that has any right in it. That
society.
which may be thought right and found convenient in
one age, may be thought wrong and found
B) surprisingly difficult for many people to
inconvenient in another. In such cases, who is to
comprehend.
80
decide, the living, or the dead?
C) frequently responsible for human progress.
D) largely irrelevant to current political decisions.
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36
39
How would Paine most likely respond to Burke’s
Which choice provides the best evidence for the
statement in lines 30-34, Passage 1 (“As the . . .
answer to the previous question?
born”)?
A) Lines 1-4 (“To avoid . . . state”)
A) He would assert that the notion of a partnership
B) Lines 7-9 (“he should . . . solicitude”)
across generations is less plausible to people of
C) Lines 27-29 (“It is . . . perfection”)
his era than it was to people in the past.
D) Lines 34-38 (“The municipal . . . community”)
B) He would argue that there are no politically
meaningful links between the dead, the living,
and the unborn.
40
C) He would question the possibility that significant
changes to a political system could be
Which choice best states the relationship between the
accomplished within a single generation.
two passages?
D) He would point out that we cannot know what
A) Passage 2 challenges the primary argument of
judgments the dead would make about
Passage 1.
contemporary issues.
B) Passage 2 advocates an alternative approach to a
problem discussed in Passage 1.
C) Passage 2 provides further evidence to support
37
an idea introduced in Passage 1.
Which choice provides the best evidence for the
D) Passage 2 exemplifies an attitude promoted in
answer to the previous question?
Passage 1.
A) Lines 41-43 (“Every . . . it”)
B) Lines 43-45 (“The vanity . . . tyrannies”)
41
C) Lines 56-58 (“It is . . . accommodated”)
The main purpose of both passages is to
D) Lines 67-72 (“What . . . time”)
A) suggest a way to resolve a particular political
struggle.
38
B) discuss the relationship between people and their
government.
Which choice best describes how Burke would most
likely have reacted to Paine’s remarks in the final
C) evaluate the consequences of rapid political
paragraph of Passage 2?
change.
A) With approval, because adapting to new events
D) describe the duties that governments have to
may enhance existing partnerships.
their citizens.
B) With resignation, because changing
circumstances are an inevitable aspect of life.
C) With skepticism, because Paine does not
substantiate his claim with examples of
governments changed for the better.
D) With disapproval, because changing conditions
are insufficient justification for changing the
form of government.
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12
CONTINUE
1
1
Questions 42-52 are based on the following
volcano. They examined 130 outcrops on the flanks
passage and supplementary material.
of the volcano, exposing sequences of pumice—ash
hardened into rock—and other pyroclastic material.
This passage is adapted from Carolyn Gramling, “Source of
The volume of ash deposited, and the estimated
Mysterious Medieval Eruption Identified.” ©2013 by
height of the eruption plume (43 kilometers above
50
American Association for the Advancement of Science.
sea level) put the eruption’s magnitude at a
About 750 years ago, a powerful volcano erupted
minimum of 7 on the volcanic explosivity index
somewhere on Earth, kicking off a centuries-long
(which has a scale of 1 to 8)—making it one of the
cold snap known as the Little Ice Age. Identifying the
largest known in the Holocene.
volcano responsible has been tricky.
Line
55
The team also performed radiocarbon analyses on
5
That a powerful volcano erupted somewhere in
carbonized tree trunks and branches buried within
the world, sometime in the Middle Ages, is written in
the pyroclastic deposits to confirm the date of the
polar ice cores in the form of layers of sulfate
eruption; it could not, they concluded, have
deposits and tiny shards of volcanic glass. These
happened before 1257 C.E., and certainly happened
cores suggest that the amount of sulfur the mystery
in the 13th century.
60
volcano sent into the stratosphere put it firmly
10
It’s not a total surprise that an Indonesian volcano
among the ranks of the strongest climate-perturbing
might be the source of the eruption, Miller says. “An
eruptions of the current geological epoch, the
equatorial eruption is more consistent with the
Holocene, a period that stretches from 10,000 years
apparent climate impacts.” And, he adds, with sulfate
ago to the present. A haze of stratospheric sulfur
appearing in both polar ice caps—Arctic and
65
cools the climate by reflecting solar energy back into
15
Antarctic—there is “a strong consensus” that this
space.
also supports an equatorial source.
In 2012, a team of scientists led by geochemist
Another possible candidate—both in terms of
Gifford Miller strengthened the link between the
timing and geographical location—is Ecuador’s
mystery eruption and the onset of the Little Ice Age
Quilotoa, estimated to have last erupted between
70
by using radiocarbon dating of dead plant material
20
1147 and 1320 C.E. But when Lavigne’s team
from beneath the ice caps on Baffin Island and
examined shards of volcanic glass from this volcano,
Iceland, as well as ice and sediment core data, to
they found that they didn’t match the chemical
determine that the cold summers and ice growth
composition of the glass found in polar ice cores,
began abruptly between 1275 and 1300 C.E. (and
75
whereas the Samalas glass is a much closer match.
became intensified between 1430 and 1455 C.E.).
25
That, they suggest, further strengthens the case that
Such a sudden onset pointed to a huge volcanic
Samalas was responsible for the medieval “year
eruption injecting sulfur into the stratosphere and
without summer” in 1258 C.E.
starting the cooling. Subsequent, unusually large and
frequent eruptions of other volcanoes, as well as
sea-ice/ocean feedbacks persisting long after the
30
aerosols have been removed from the atmosphere,
may have prolonged the cooling through the 1700s.
Volcanologist Franck Lavigne and colleagues now
think they’ve identified the volcano in question:
Indonesia’s Samalas. One line of evidence, they note,
35
is historical records. According to Babad Lombok,
records of the island written on palm leaves in Old
Javanese, Samalas erupted catastrophically before the
end of the 13th century, devastating surrounding
villages—including Lombok’s capital at the time,
40
Pamatan—with ash and fast-moving sweeps of hot
rock and gas called pyroclastic flows.
The researchers then began to reconstruct the
formation of the large, 800-meter-deep caldera [a
basin-shaped volcanic crater] that now sits atop the
45
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13
CONTINUE
1
1
Estimated Temperature in Central England
44
1000 CE to 2000 CE
Which choice provides the best evidence for the
+0.5
answer to the previous question?
Little Ice Age
A) Lines 17-25 (“In 2012 . . . 1455 C.E.”)
0
B) Lines 43-46 (“The researchers . . . atop the
volcano”)
Medieval
-0.5
Warm Period
C) Lines 46-48 (“They examined . . . material”)
D) Lines 55-60 (“The team . . . 13th century”)
-1.0
45
The author uses the phrase “is written in” (line 6)
Year
most likely to
A) demonstrate the concept of the hands-on nature
*Variation from the 1961-1990 average temperature, in °C,
of the work done by scientists.
represented at 0.
B) highlight the fact that scientists often write about
Adapted from John P. Rafferty, “Little Ice Age.” Originally published
their discoveries.
in 2011. ©2014 by Encyclopedia Britannica, Inc.
C) underscore the sense of importance that
scientists have regarding their work.
D) reinforce the idea that the evidence is there and
42
can be interpreted by scientists.
The main purpose of the passage is to
A) describe periods in Earth’s recent geologic
46
history.
Where does the author indicate the medieval
B) explain the methods scientists use in
volcanic eruption most probably was located?
radiocarbon analysis.
A) Near the equator, in Indonesia
C) describe evidence linking the volcano Samalas to
B) In the Arctic region
the Little Ice Age.
C) In the Antarctic region
D) explain how volcanic glass forms during volcanic
eruptions.
D) Near the equator, in Ecuador
43
47
Over the course of the passage, the focus shifts from
Which choice provides the best evidence for the
answer to the previous question?
A) a criticism of a scientific model to a new theory.
A) Lines 1-3 (“About 750 . . . Ice Age”)
B) a description of a recorded event to its likely
cause.
B) Lines 26-28 (“Such a . . . the cooling”)
C) the use of ice core samples to a new method of
C) Lines 49-54 (“The volume . . . the Holocene”)
measuring sulfates.
D) Lines 61-64 (“It’s not . . . climate impacts”)
D) the use of radiocarbon dating to an examination
of volcanic glass.
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14
CONTINUE
1
1
48
51
As used in line 68, the phrase “Another possible
The passage and the figure are in agreement that the
candidate” implies that
onset of the Little Ice Age began
A) powerful volcanic eruptions occur frequently.
A) around 1150 CE.
B) the effects of volcanic eruptions can last for
B) just before 1300 CE.
centuries.
C) just before 1500 CE.
C) scientists know of other volcanoes that erupted
D) around 1650 CE.
during the Middle Ages.
D) other volcanoes have calderas that are very large.
52
What statement is best supported by the data
49
presented in the figure?
Which choice best supports the claim that Quilotoa
A) The greatest cooling during the Little Ice Age
was not responsible for the Little Ice Age?
occurred hundreds of years after the temperature
A) Lines 3-4 (“Identifying . . . tricky”)
peaks of the Medieval Warm Period.
B) Lines 26-28 (“Such a . . . cooling”)
B) The sharp decline in temperature supports the
hypothesis of an equatorial volcanic eruption in
C) Lines 43-46 (“The researchers . . . atop the
the Middle Ages.
volcano”)
C) Pyroclastic flows from volcanic eruptions
D) Lines 71-75 (“But . . . closer match”)
continued for hundreds of years after the
eruptions had ended.
50
D) Radiocarbon analysis is the best tool scientists
have to determine the temperature variations
According to the data in the figure, the greatest
after volcanic eruptions.
below-average temperature variation occurred
around what year?
A)
1200 CE
B)
1375 CE
C)
1675 CE
D) 1750 CE
STOP
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section.
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15
2
2
Writing and Language Test
35 MINUTES, 44 QUESTIONS
Turn to Section 2 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.
DIRECTIONS
Each passage below is accompanied by a number of questions. For some questions, you
will consider how the passage might be revised to improve the expression of ideas. For
other questions, you will consider how the passage might be edited to correct errors in
sentence structure, usage, or punctuation. A passage or a question may be accompanied by
one or more graphics (such as a table or graph) that you will consider as you make revising
and editing decisions.
Some questions will direct you to an underlined portion of a passage. Other questions will
direct you to a location in a passage or ask you to think about the passage as a whole.
After reading each passage, choose the answer to each question that most effectively
improves the quality of writing in the passage or that makes the passage conform to the
conventions of standard written English. Many questions include a “NO CHANGE” option.
Choose that option if you think the best choice is to leave the relevant portion of the
passage as it is.
Questions 1-11 are based on the following passage.
1
A) NO CHANGE
Ghost Mural
B) which he accordingly titled
C) accordingly he titled it
In 1932 the well-known Mexican muralist David
D) it was titled accordingly
Alfaro Siqueiros was commissioned to paint a mural on
the second-story exterior wall of a historic building in
2
downtown Los Angeles. Siqueiros was asked to celebrate
A) NO CHANGE
tropical America in his work,
1
he accordingly titled it
B) However,
C) Although,
“América Tropical.” He painted the mural’s first two
D) Moreover,
sections, featuring images of a tropical rainforest and a
Maya pyramid, during the day.
2
Also, to avoid
Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.
16
CONTINUE
2
2
scrutiny, Siqueiros painted the final section of the mural,
3
A) NO CHANGE
the
3
centerpiece at night.
B) centerpiece,
4
The reason for Siqueiros’s secrecy became clear
C) centerpiece;
when the mural was
5
confided. The centerpiece of the
D) centerpiece—
work was dominated by images of native people being
oppressed and
6
including an eagle symbolizing the
4
United States. Siqueiros’s political message did not please
Which choice best connects the sentence with the
previous paragraph?
the wealthy citizens who had commissioned his work.
A)
NO CHANGE
They eventually ordered the mural to be literally
B)
All three sections of the mural were on display
whitewashed, or painted over with white paint.
C)
The community turned out in large numbers
D)
Siqueiros was informed of people’s reactions
However, by the 1970s, the white paint had begun to
fade, and the bright colors of the mural were beginning to
5
show through. At the same time, a social and civil rights
A)
NO CHANGE
movement for Mexican Americans was working to raise
B)
promulgated.
awareness of Mexican American cultural identity. Artists
C)
imparted.
D)
unveiled.
associated with
7
this began to rediscover and promote
the work of the Mexican muralists, particularly Siqueiros.
6
To them, “América Tropical” was an example of how art
A)
NO CHANGE
in public spaces could be used to celebrate Mexican
B)
included
American heritage while at the same time making a
C)
includes
D)
had included
political statement. Inspired by Siqueiros and the other
muralists, this new generation of artists strove to emulate
7
the old mural masters.
A)
NO CHANGE
B)
it
C)
them
D)
this movement
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17
CONTINUE
2
2
8
The result was an explosion of mural painting
8
that spread throughout California and the southwestern
Which choice most effectively combines the
underlined sentences?
United States in the 1970s. It was the Chicano mural
A)
The result was an explosion, the Chicano mural
movement. Hundreds of large, colorful new murals
movement, of mural painting that spread
throughout California and the southwestern
depicting elements of Mexican American life and history
United States in the 1970s.
appeared during this period, some in designated cultural
B)
The result was the Chicano mural movement, an
explosion of mural painting that spread
locations but many more in abandoned lots, on unused
throughout California and the southwestern
United States in the 1970s.
buildings, or
9
painted on infrastructure such as
C)
The explosion of mural painting that spread
highways and bridges. Many of these murals can still be
throughout California and the southwestern
United States in the 1970s was the resulting
seen today, although some have not been well
Chicano mural movement.
maintained.
D)
An explosion of mural painting resulted and it
spread throughout California and the
southwestern United States in the 1970s; it was
the Chicano mural movement.
9
A)
NO CHANGE
B)
they were painted on
C)
on
D)
DELETE the underlined portion.
Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.
18
CONTINUE
2
2
Fortunately, a new group of artists has discovered the
10
murals, and efforts are underway to clean, restore, and
Which choice most effectively sets up the
information that follows?
repaint them. Once again, Siqueiros’s “América Tropical”
A) NO CHANGE
is
10 leading the way. After a lengthy and complex
B) being cleaned and restored.
restoration process, this powerful work is now a tourist
C) at risk of destruction.
D) awaiting its moment of appreciation.
attraction, complete with a visitor center and a rooftop
viewing platform. 11 Advocates hope that Siqueiros’s
11
mural will once more serve as an inspiration, this time
At this point, the writer is considering adding the
inspiring viewers to save and restore an important
following sentence.
cultural and artistic legacy.
When it was painted in 1932, Siqueiros’s mural
was considered offensive, but now it is
acclaimed.
Should the writer make this addition here?
A) Yes, because it provides historical context for the
changes discussed in the passage.
B) Yes, because it provides a useful reminder of
how people once viewed Siqueiros’s work.
C) No, because it unnecessarily repeats information
from earlier in the passage.
D) No, because it makes a claim about Siqueiros’s
work that is not supported by the passage.
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19
CONTINUE
2
2
Questions 12-22 are based on the following passage.
12
A)
NO CHANGE
The Hype of Healthier Organic Food
B)
the purchase of
C)
purchasing
Some people buy organic food because they believe
D)
DELETE the underlined portion.
organically grown crops are more nutritious and safer for
consumption than 12 the people who purchase their
13
conventionally grown counterparts, which are usually
A)
NO CHANGE
produced with pesticides and synthetic fertilizers. In the
B)
these consumers spend
C)
having spent
name of health, 13 spending $1.60 for every dollar they
D)
to spend
would have spent on food that is 14 grown in a manner
that is considered conventional. Scientific evidence,
14
15 therefore, suggests that consumers do not reap
A)
NO CHANGE
significant benefits, in terms of either nutritional value or
B)
grown with conventional methods, using
pesticides and synthetic fertilizers.
safety, from organic food.
C)
conventionally and therefore not organically
grown.
D)
conventionally grown.
15
A)
NO CHANGE
B)
furthermore,
C)
however,
D)
subsequently,
Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.
20
CONTINUE
2
2
Although advocates of organic food 16 preserve that
16
organic produce is healthier than conventionally grown
A) NO CHANGE
B) carry on
produce because it has more vitamins and minerals, this
C) maintain
assertion is not supported by scientific research. 17 For
D) sustain
instance, one review published in The American Journal
of Clinical Nutrition provided analysis of the results of
17
comparative studies conducted over a span of 50 years;
A) NO CHANGE
B) However,
researchers consistently found no evidence that organic
C) In addition,
crops are more nutritious than conventionally grown
D) Likewise,
ones in terms of their vitamin and mineral content. 18
Similarly, Stanford University researchers who examined
18
almost 250 studies comparing the nutritional content of
At this point, the writer is considering adding the
following sentence.
different kinds of organic foods with that of their
The United States Department of Agriculture
nonorganic counterparts found very little difference
(USDA) reports that organic agricultural
products are now available in approximately
between the two.
20,000 markets specializing in natural foods.
Should the writer make this addition here?
A) Yes, because it adds a relevant research finding
from a government agency.
B) Yes, because it supports the passage’s argument
that organic food is less nutritious than
conventionally grown food.
C) No, because it is not relevant to the paragraph’s
discussion of scientific evidence.
D) No, because it introduces a term that has not
been defined in the passage.
Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.
21
CONTINUE
2
2
Evidence also undermines the claim that organic
19
food is safer to eat. While researchers have found lower
A) NO CHANGE
B) is having
levels of pesticide residue in organic produce than in
C) has had
nonorganic produce, the pesticide residue detected in
D) has
conventional produce falls within acceptable safety limits.
According to such organizations as the US
20
Environmental Protection Agency, the minute amounts
At this point, the writer wants to further reinforce
the paragraph’s claim about the safety of nonorganic
of residue falling within such limits 19 have no negative
food. Which choice most effectively accomplishes
this goal?
impact on human health. 20
A) To be labeled organic, a product must meet
certain standards determined and monitored by
the US Department of Agriculture.
B) Organic food, however, is regulated to eliminate
artificial ingredients that include certain types of
preservatives, sweeteners, colorings, and flavors.
C) Moreover, consumers who are concerned about
ingesting pesticide residue can eliminate much
of it by simply washing or peeling produce
before eating it.
D) In fact, the Environmental Protection Agency
estimates that about one-fifth of the pesticides
used worldwide are applied to crops in the
United States.
Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.
22
CONTINUE
2
2
Based on scientific evidence, organic food offers
21
A) NO CHANGE
neither significant nutritional nor safety benefits for
B) there are
consumers. Proponents of organic food, of course, are
C) there is
quick to add that 21 their are numerous other reasons to
D) their is
buy organic 22 food, such as, a desire to protect the
environment from potentially damaging pesticides or a
22
A) NO CHANGE
preference for the taste of organically grown foods.
B) food such as:
Research regarding these issues is less conclusive than the
C) food such as,
findings regarding nutritional content and pesticide
D) food, such as
residue safety limits. What is clear, though, is this: if a
consumer’s goal is to buy the healthiest and safest food to
eat, the increased cost of organic food is a waste of
money.
Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.
23
CONTINUE
2
2
Questions 23-33 are based on the following passage
23
and supplementary material.
The writer wants to convey an attitude of genuine
interest and to avoid the appearance of mockery.
Which choice best accomplishes this goal?
You Are Where You Say
A) NO CHANGE
Research on regional variations in English-language
B) galvanizing
use has not only yielded answers to such 23 life-altering
C) intriguing
questions as how people in different parts of the
D) weird
United States refer to carbonated beverages (“soda”?
24
“pop”? “coke”?) 24 it also illustrates how technology can
A) NO CHANGE
change the very nature of research. While traditional,
B) and also illustrates
human-intensive data collection 25 has all but
C) but also illustrates
disappeared in language studies, the explosion of social
D) illustrating
media has opened new avenues for investigation.
[1] Perhaps the epitome of traditional methodology
25
Which choice most effectively sets up the contrast in
is the Dictionary of American Regional English,
the sentence and is consistent with the information
colloquially known as DARE. [2] Its fifth and final
in the rest of the passage?
A) NO CHANGE
alphabetical volume—ending with “zydeco”—released in
B) still has an important place
2012, the dictionary represents decades of arduous work.
C) remains the only option
[3] Over a six-year period from 1965 to 1970, university
D) yields questionable results
graduate students conducted interviews in more than a
thousand communities across the nation. [4] Their goal
was to determine what names people used for such
everyday objects and concepts as a submarine sandwich
Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.
24
CONTINUE
2
2
(a “hero” in New York City but a “dagwood” in many
26
parts of Minnesota, Iowa, and Colorado) and a heavy
A) NO CHANGE
B) scholars, and these scholars
rainstorm (variously a “gully washer,” “pour-down,” or
C) scholars, but scholars
“stump mover”). [5] The work that dictionary founder
D) scholars, who
Frederic G. Cassidy had expected to be finished by 1976
was not, in fact, completed in his lifetime. [6] The wait
27
did not dampen enthusiasm among 26 scholars.
To improve the cohesion and flow of this paragraph,
the writer wants to add the following sentence.
Scholars consider the work a signal achievement in
Data gathering proved to be the quick part of the
linguistics.
27
project.
Not all research into regional English varieties
The sentence would most logically be placed after
28 requires such time, effort, and resources, however.
A)
sentence 2.
B)
sentence 3.
Today’s researchers have found that the veritable army of
C)
sentence 4.
trained volunteers traveling the country conducting
D)
sentence 5.
face-to-face interviews can sometimes be 29 replaced by
another army the vast array of individuals volunteering
28
details about their lives—and, inadvertently, their
A)
NO CHANGE
B)
are requiring
language—through social media. Brice Russ of Ohio State
C)
have required
University, for example, has employed software to sort
D)
require
through postings on one social media 30 cite in search
of particular words and phrases of interest as well as the
29
location from which users are posting. From these data,
A)
NO CHANGE
B)
replaced—by another army,
C)
replaced by another army;
D)
replaced by another army:
30
A)
NO CHANGE
B)
site in search of
C)
sight in search for
D)
cite in search for
Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.
25
CONTINUE
2
2
he was able, among other things, to confirm regional
31
variations in people’s terms for soft drinks. As the map
The writer wants the information in the passage
to correspond as closely as possible with the
shows, “soda” is commonly heard in the middle and
information in the map. Given that goal and
assuming that the rest of the previous sentence
western portions of the United States; “pop” is frequently
would remain unchanged, in which sequence
used in many southern states; and “coke” is predominant
should the three terms for soft drinks be discussed?
A) NO CHANGE
in the northeastern and southwest regions but used
B)
“pop,” “soda,” “coke”
elsewhere as well. 31 As interesting as Russ’s findings
C)
“pop,” “coke,” “soda”
are, though, 32 they’re true value lies in their reminder
D) “soda,” “coke,” “pop”
that the Internet is not merely a sophisticated tool for
collecting data but is also 33 itself a rich source of data.
32
A) NO CHANGE
Sof Drink Descriptions by State
B) their true value lies in their
Highest Percentage Reported
C) there true value lies in they’re
D) their true value lies in there
33
Which choice most effectively concludes the
sentence and paragraph?
N
A) NO CHANGE
B) where we can learn what terms people use
pop
to refer to soft drinks.
coke
C) a useful way to stay connected to friends,
soda
family, and colleagues.
Adapted from Jennifer M. Smith, Department of Geography, The
D) helpful to researchers.
Pennsylvania State University, with data from www.popvssoda.com
Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.
26
CONTINUE
2
2
Questions 34-44 are based on the following passage.
34
A)
NO CHANGE
Creating Worlds: A Career in Game Design
B)
has been
C)
are
If you love video games and have thought about how
D)
was
the games you play might be changed or improved, or if
you’ve imagined creating a video game of your own, you
35
might want to consider a career as a video game designer.
A)
NO CHANGE
There 34 were a number of steps you can take to
B)
elements: the settings, characters, and plots that
make each game unique—
determine whether game design is the right field for you
C)
elements—the settings, characters, and plots that
and, if it is, to prepare yourself for such a career.
make each game unique—
D)
elements; the settings, characters, and plots that
Before making the choice, you should have some
make each game unique;
sense of what a video game designer does. Every video
game, whether for a console, computer, or mobile device,
36
starts with a concept that originates in the mind of a
A)
NO CHANGE
B)
job, however. No
designer. The designer envisions the game’s fundamental
C)
job—however, no
35 elements: the settings, characters, and plots that make
D)
job however no
each game unique, and is thus a primary creative force
behind a video game.
37
Conceptualizing a game is only the beginning of a
At this point, the writer is considering adding the
following sentence.
video game designer’s 36 job, however, no matter how
Successful communication is essential if a
good a concept is, it will never be translated into a video
designer’s idea is to become a reality.
game unless it is communicated effectively to all the other
Should the writer make this addition here?
members of the video game development team. 37 A
A) Yes, because it supports the conclusion drawn in
the following sentence.
designer must generate extensive documentation and
B) Yes, because it illustrates a general principle
discussed in the paragraph.
C) No, because it distracts from the focus of the
paragraph by introducing irrelevant material.
D) No, because it merely reformulates the thought
expressed in the preceding sentence.
Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.
27
CONTINUE
2
2
38 explain his or her ideas clearly in order to ensure that
38
the programmers, artists, and others on the team all share
Which choice results in a sentence that best supports
the point developed in this paragraph?
the same vision. 39 Likewise, anyone considering a
A)
NO CHANGE
career as a video game designer must be 40 skilled
B)
possess a vivid imagination
writers and speakers. In addition, because video game
C)
assess his or her motivations carefully
D)
learn to accept constructive criticism
development is a collaborative effort and because the
development of any one game may take months or even
39
years, a designer must be an effective team player as well
A)
NO CHANGE
as detail oriented.
B)
Nevertheless,
[1] A basic understanding of computer programming
C)
Consequently,
D)
However,
is essential. [2] In fact, many designers 41 initially begin
their pursuits as programmers. [3] Consider taking some
40
general computer science courses as well as courses in
A)
NO CHANGE
artificial intelligence and graphics in order to increase
B)
a skilled writer and speaker.
your understanding of the technical challenges involved
C)
skilled both as writers and speakers.
D)
both skilled writers and speakers.
in developing a video game. [4] Courses in psychology
and human behavior may help you develop 42 emphatic
41
collaboration skills, while courses in the humanities, such
A)
NO CHANGE
as in literature and film, should give you the background
B)
start to begin their work
necessary to develop effective narrative structures. [5] A
C)
initiate their progression
D)
begin their careers
42
A)
NO CHANGE
B)
paramount
C)
eminent
D)
important
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28
CONTINUE
2
2
designer also needs careful educational preparation.
43
[6] Finally, because a designer should understand the
A) NO CHANGE
B) the choice of video game design
business aspects of the video game industry, such as
C) you should choose video game design because it
budgeting and marketing, you may want to consider
D) choosing to design video games
taking some business courses. [7] Although demanding
and deadline driven, 43 video game design can be a
44
lucrative and rewarding field for people who love gaming
To make this paragraph most logical, sentence 5
should be
and have prepared themselves with the necessary skills
A) placed where it is now.
and knowledge. 44
B) placed before sentence 1.
C) placed after sentence 3.
D) DELETED from the paragraph.
STOP
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section.
Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.
29
CONTINUE
3
3
Math Test - No Calculator
25 MINUTES, 20 QUESTIONS
Turn to Section 3 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.
For questions 1-15, solve each problem, choose the best answer from the choices
provided, and fill in the corresponding circle on your answer sheet. For questions 16-20,
solve the problem and enter your answer in the grid on the answer sheet. Please refer to
the directions before question 16 on how to enter your answers in the grid. You may use
any available space in your test booklet for scratch work.
1. The use of a calculator is not permitted.
2. All variables and expressions used represent real numbers unless otherwise indicated.
3. Figures provided in this test are drawn to scale unless otherwise indicated.
4. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.
5. Unless otherwise indicated, the domain of a given function f is the set of all real numbers x for
which f (x) is a real number.
45°
s2
2x
60°
r
c
h
b
x s
w
30°
45°
b
a
s
x3
2
1
A = pr
A = w
A = bh
c2 = a2 + b2
Special Right Triangles
2
C = 2pr
r
h
r
h
h
h
w
r
w
V = wh
V = pr2h
V = pr34
V = pr2h1
V = wh1
3
3
3
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360.
The number of radians of arc in a circle is 2p.
The sum of the measures in degrees of the angles of a triangle is 180.
Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.
30
CONTINUE
3
3
1
3
Which of the following expressions is equal to 0 for
x
6
some value of x
?
y =
4(
y
+ 1) =
x
A)
x−1
−1
If (x, y) is the solution to the system of equations
B)
x+1
+1
above, what is the value of y ?
C)
1−x
+1
A)
2
D)
x−1
+1
B)
4
C)
12
D) 24
2
3
f (x) = x+ b
2
4
In the function above, b is a constant. If f (6) = 7 ,
If f (x) = −2x + 5, what is f (−3x) equal to?
what is the value of f (−2) ?
A) −6x − 5
A) −5
B)
6x + 5
B)
−2
C)
6x − 5
C)
1
2
D) 6x
− 15x
D)
7
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31
CONTINUE
3
3
5
7
3(2x + 1)(4x + 1)
While preparing to run a marathon, Amelia created a
training schedule in which the distance of her longest
Which of the following is equivalent to the
run every week increased by a constant amount. If
expression above?
Amelia’s training schedule requires that her longest
run in week 4 is a distance of 8 miles and her longest
A) 45x
run in week 16 is a distance of 26 miles, which of the
2
B)
24x
+3
following best describes how the distance Amelia
runs changes between week 4 and week 16 of her
2
C)
24x
+ 18x + 3
training schedule?
2
D) 18x
+6
A)
Amelia increases the distance of her longest run
by 0.5 miles each week.
B)
Amelia increases the distance of her longest run
by 2 miles each week.
C)
Amelia increases the distance of her longest run
by 2 miles every 3 weeks.
D)
Amelia increases the distance of her longest run
6
by 1.5 miles each week.
ab
3
If
=
, which of the following must also be
b
7
true?
a
A)
=−4
b
7
a
10
B)
=
b
7
a+b
10
C)
=
b
7
a−2b
D)
=−11
b
7
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32
CONTINUE
3
3
8
10
Which of the following equations represents a line
t+5
If
= 10, what is the value of t ?
that is parallel to the line with equation
t−5
y=−3x+4 ?
45
A)
A) 6x + 2y = 15
11
B)
3x y = 7
B)
5
C)
2x − 3y = 6
D) x + 3y = 1
11
C)
2
55
D)
9
9
xa =x−4
If a = 2, what is the solution set of the equation
11
above?
x= 2y+5
A) {3, 6}
y
= (2x
− 3)(x
+ 9)
B)
{2}
How many ordered pairs (x, y) satisfy the system of
C) {3}
equations shown above?
D) {6}
A)
0
B)
1
C)
2
D) Infinitely many
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33
CONTINUE
3
3
12
14
Ken and Paul each ordered a sandwich at a
8−
i
restaurant. The price of Ken’s sandwich was
3−2i
x dollars, and the price of Paul’s sandwich was $1
more than the price of Ken’s sandwich. If Ken and
If the expression above is rewritten in the form
Paul split the cost of the sandwiches evenly and each
a + bi, where a and b are real numbers, what is the
paid a 20% tip, which of the following expressions
value of a ? (Note: i =
−1)
represents the amount, in dollars, each of them paid?
(Assume there is no sales tax.)
A)
2
A)
0.2x + 0.2
8
B)
0.5x + 0.1
B)
3
C)
1.2x + 0.6
D)
2.4x + 1.2
C)
3
11
D)
3
13
y
15
y = f (x)
x2 kx= 2p
2
In the quadratic equation above, k and p are
x
(-k, 0)
O
(k, 0)
constants. What are the solutions for x ?
y = g(x)
2
k
+2p
A)
x= k
4 ±
4
2
k
+ 32p
2
The functions f and g, defined by f (x) = 8x
2
B)
x= k
4 ±
4
2
and g(x) = −8x
+2, are graphed in the xy-plane
2
k
+2p
above. The graphs of f and g intersect at the points
C)
x= k
2 ±
2
(k
,0) and (−k,0). What is the value of k ?
1
2
k
+ 32p
A)
D)
x= k
4
2 ±
4
1
B)
2
C)
1
D) 2
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34
CONTINUE
3
3
7
Answer:
Answer: 2.5
12
DIRECTIONS
Write
For questions 16 -20, solve the problem and
answer
7
/
1
2
2
5
in boxes.
enter your answer in the grid, as described
/
/
Fraction
/
/
line
below, on the answer sheet.
Decimal
point
0
0
0
0
0
0
1. Although not required, it is suggested that
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
you write your answer in the boxes at the top
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
of the columns to help you fill in the circles
Grid in
3
3
3
3
3
3
3
3
result.
accurately. You will receive credit only if the
4
4
4
4
4
4
4
4
circles are filled in correctly.
5
5
5
5
5
5
5
5
2. Mark no more than one circle in any column.
6
6
6
6
6
6
6
6
3. No question has a negative answer.
7
7
7
7
7
7
7
7
4. Some problems may have more than one
8
8
8
8
8
8
8
8
correct answer. In such cases, grid only one
9
9
9
9
9
9
9
9
answer.
1
2
5. Mixed numbers such as
3
must be gridded
Acceptable ways to grid are:
2
3
as 3.5 or 7/2. (If
3
1
/
2
is entered into the
/
/
2
/
3
6
6
6
6
6
7
31
1
/
/
/
/
/
/
grid, it will be interpreted as
, not
3
.)
2
2
6. Decimal answers: If you obtain a decimal
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
answer with more digits than the grid can
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
accommodate, it may be either rounded or
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
truncated, but it must fill the entire grid.
3
3
3
3
3
3
3
3
3
3
3
3
4
4
4
4
4
4
4
4
4
4
4
4
5
5
5
5
5
5
5
5
5
5
5
5
6
6
6
6
6
6
6
6
6
6
6
6
7
8
8
8
8
8
8
Answer: 201 - either position is correct
NOTE: You
2
0
1
2
0
1
may start your
answers in any
/
/
/
/
column, space
permitting.
0
0
0
0
0
0
Columns you
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
don’t need to
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
use should be
left blank.
3
3
3
3
Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.
35
CONTINUE
3
3
16
17
2x
y°
shelf
shampoo
18 in
3x
x°
shelf
shelf
x
In the triangle above, the sine of x° is 0.6. What is
the cosine of y° ?
Jim has a triangular shelf system that attaches to his
showerhead. The total height of the system is
18 inches, and there are three parallel shelves as
shown above. What is the maximum height, in
inches, of a shampoo bottle that can stand upright on
the middle shelf?
18
3
2
x
− 5x
+ 2x − 10 = 0
For what real value of x is the equation above true?
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36
CONTINUE
3
3
19
20
−3x+4y
= 20
The mesosphere is the layer of Earth’s atmosphere
6x+3y
= 15
between 50 kilometers and 85 kilometers above
Earth’s surface. At a distance of 50 kilometers from
If (x, y) is the solution to the system of equations
above, what is the value of x ?
Earth’s surface, the temperature in the mesosphere is
−5° Celsius, and at a distance of 80 kilometers from
Earth’s surface, the temperature in the mesosphere is
−80° Celsius. For every additional 10 kilometers
from Earth’s surface, the temperature in the
mesosphere decreases by k° Celsius, where k is a
constant. What is the value of k ?
STOP
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section.
Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.
37
4
4
Math Test - Calculator
55 MINUTES, 38 QUESTIONS
Turn to Section 4 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.
For questions 1-30, solve each problem, choose the best answer from the choices
provided, and fill in the corresponding circle on your answer sheet. For questions 31-38,
solve the problem and enter your answer in the grid on the answer sheet. Please refer to
the directions before question 31 on how to enter your answers in the grid. You may use
any available space in your test booklet for scratch work.
1. The use of a calculator is permitted.
2. All variables and expressions used represent real numbers unless otherwise indicated.
3. Figures provided in this test are drawn to scale unless otherwise indicated.
4. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.
5. Unless otherwise indicated, the domain of a given function f is the set of all real numbers x for
which f (x) is a real number.
45°
s2
2x
60°
r
c
h
b
x s
w
30°
45°
b
a
s
x3
2
1
A = pr
A = w
A = bh
c2 = a2 + b2
Special Right Triangles
2
C = 2pr
r
h
r
h
h
h
w
r
w
V = wh
V = pr2h
V = pr34
V = pr2h1
V = wh1
3
3
3
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360.
The number of radians of arc in a circle is 2p.
The sum of the measures in degrees of the angles of a triangle is 180.
Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.
38
CONTINUE
4
4
1
3
The monthly membership fee for an online television
If a 3-pound pizza is sliced in half and each half is
and movie service is $9.80. The cost of viewing
sliced into thirds, what is the weight, in ounces, of
television shows online is included in the
each of the slices? (1 pound = 16 ounces)
membership fee, but there is an additional fee
A)
4
of $1.50 to rent each movie online. For one month,
Jill’s membership and movie rental fees were $12.80.
B)
6
How many movies did Jill rent online that month?
C)
8
A)
1
D) 16
B)
2
C)
3
D) 4
4
Nick surveyed a random sample of the freshman
class of his high school to determine whether the Fall
Festival should be held in October or November. Of
2
the 90 students surveyed, 25.6% preferred October.
One of the requirements for becoming a court
Based on this information, about how many students
reporter is the ability to type 225 words per minute.
in the entire 225-person class would be expected to
Donald can currently type 180 words per minute,
prefer having the Fall Festival in October?
and believes that with practice he can increase his
A)
50
typing speed by 5 words per minute each month.
Which of the following represents the number of
B)
60
words per minute that Donald believes he will be able
C)
75
to type m months from now?
D) 80
A) 5 + 180m
B)
225 + 5m
C) 180 + 5m
D) 180 − 5m
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39
CONTINUE
4
4
5
7
The density of an object is equal to the mass of the
Movies with Greatest Ticket Sales in 2012
object divided by the volume of the object. What is
the volume, in milliliters, of an object with a mass of
Type of movie
MPAA
24 grams and a density of 3 grams per milliliter?
rating
Action Animated Comedy Drama
Total
A)
0.125
B)
8
PG
2
7
0
2
11
C)
21
PG-13
10
0
4
8
22
D) 72
R
6
0
5
6
17
Total
18
7
9
16
50
The table above represents the 50 movies that had
the greatest ticket sales in 2012, categorized by movie
type and Motion Picture Association of America
(MPAA) rating. What proportion of the movies are
6
comedies with a PG-13 rating?
Last week Raul worked 11 more hours than
Angelica. If they worked a combined total of
2
A)
59 hours, how many hours did Angelica work last
25
week?
9
B)
A)
24
50
B)
35
2
C)
40
C)
11
D) 48
11
D)
25
8
Line A in the xy-plane contains points from each of
Quadrants II, III, and IV, but no points from
Quadrant I. Which of the following must be true?
A) The slope of line A is undefined.
B) The slope of line A is zero.
C) The slope of line A is positive.
D) The slope of line A is negative.
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40
CONTINUE
4
4
9
Number of Registered Voters
in the United States in 2012, in Tousands
Age, in years
75 and
Region
18 to 24
25 to 44
45 to 64
65 to 74
Total
older
Northeast
2,713
8,159
10,986
3,342
2,775
27,975
Midwest
3,453
11,237
13,865
4,221
3,350
36,126
South
5,210
18,072
21,346
7,272
4,969
56,869
West
3,390
10,428
11,598
3,785
2,986
32,187
Total
14,766
47,896
57,795
18,620
14,080
153,157
The table above shows the number of registered voters in 2012, in thousands, in four geographic regions and five age
groups. Based on the table, if a registered voter who was 18 to 44 years old in 2012 is chosen at random, which of the
following is closest to the probability that the registered voter was from the Midwest region?
A)
0.10
B)
0.25
C)
0.40
D) 0.75
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41
CONTINUE
4
4
11
Questions 10 and 11 refer to the following
Of the labeled points, which represents the animal
information.
for which the ratio of life expectancy to gestation
period is greatest?
Gestation Period versus Life Expectancy
12
A) A
10
D
B) B
C) C
8
B
C
A
D) D
6
4
2
0
10
15
20
25
30
35
40
45
50
55
60 65
Gestation period (days)
A curator at a wildlife society created the scatterplot
above to examine the relationship between the gestation
period and life expectancy of 10 species of animals.
12
In the xy-plane, the graph of function f has
x-intercepts at −3, −1, and 1. Which of the
10
following could define f ?
What is the life expectancy, in years, of the animal
that has the longest gestation period?
A) f (x) = (x − 3)(x − 1)(x + 1)
A)
3
B) f (x) = (x − 3)(x − 1)2
B)
4
C) f (x) = (x − 1)(x + 1)(x + 3)
C)
8
D) f (x) = (x + 1)2(x + 3)
D) 10
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42
CONTINUE
4
4
13
14
The population of mosquitoes in a swamp is
12
r
estimated over the course of twenty weeks, as shown
1,0001 +
1,200
in the table.
The expression above gives the amount of money, in
Time (weeks)
Population
dollars, generated in a year by a $1,000 deposit in a
bank account that pays an annual interest rate of r %,
0
100
compounded monthly. Which of the following
5
1,000
expressions shows how much additional money is
generated at an interest rate of 5% than at an interest
10
10,000
rate of 3% ?
15
100,000
12
20
1,000,000
5−3
A)
1,0001+
1,200
Which of the following best describes the
relationship between time and the estimated
population of mosquitoes during the twenty weeks?
12
5
A) Increasing linear
3
B)
1,0001 +
B) Decreasing linear
1,200
C) Exponential growth
D) Exponential decay
12
5
1,0001 +
1,200
C)
12
3
1,0001 +
1,200
12
12
5
3
D) 1,0001 +
− 1,0001 +
1,200
1,200
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43
CONTINUE
4
4
15
Questions 16 and 17 refer to the following
Which of the following scatterplots shows a
information.
relationship that is appropriately modeled with the
Mr. Martinson is building a concrete patio in his
backyard and deciding where to buy the materials and
equation
y = axb, where a is positive and b is
rent the tools needed for the project. The table below
negative?
shows the materials’ cost and daily rental costs for three
different stores.
y
A)
Rental cost of
20
Materials’
Rental cost of
concrete
Store
Cost, M
wheelbarrow, W
mixer, K
10
(dollars)
(dollars per day)
(dollars per day)
x
A
750
15
65
O
10
20
30
B
600
25
80
C
700
20
70
B)
y
20
The total cost, y, for buying the materials and renting the
tools in terms of the number of days, x, is given by
10
y = M + (W + K)x.
x
O
10
20
30
16
C)
y
For what number of days, x, will the total cost of
20
buying the materials and renting the tools from
Store B be less than or equal to the total cost of
10
buying the materials and renting the tools from
Store A ?
x
O
10
20
30
A) x ≤ 6
B) x ≥ 6
D) y
C) x ≤ 7.3
20
D) x ≥ 7.3
10
x
O
10
20
30
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44
CONTINUE
4
4
17
18
If the relationship between the total cost, y, of buying
Jim has identical drinking glasses each in the shape of
the materials and renting the tools at Store C and the
a right circular cylinder with internal diameter of
number of days, x, for which the tools are rented is
3 inches. He pours milk from a gallon jug into each
graphed in the xy-plane, what does the slope of the
glass until it is full. If the height of milk in each glass
line represent?
is about 6 inches, what is the largest number of full
milk glasses that he can pour from one gallon of
A) The total cost of the project
milk? (Note: There are 231 cubic inches in 1 gallon.)
B) The total cost of the materials
A)
2
C) The total daily cost of the project
B)
4
D) The total daily rental costs of the tools
C)
5
D) 6
19
If 3p − 2 ≥ 1, what is the least possible value of
3p
+2 ?
A)
5
B)
3
C)
2
D) 1
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45
CONTINUE
4
4
20
Questions 21 and 22 refer to the following
The mass of living organisms in a lake is defined to
information.
be the biomass of the lake. If the biomass in a lake
doubles each year, which of the following graphs
Renewable Energy Consumption
could model the biomass in the lake as a function of
3.00
2000
time? (Note: In each graph below, O represents
2010
2.50
(0, 0).)
2.00
A)
2
1.50
1
1.00
0.50
O
1
2
Time (years)
0.00
B)
2
Energy source
1
O
1
2
The bar graph above shows renewable energy
Time (years)
consumption in quadrillions of British thermal units
(Btu) in the United States, by energy source, for several
energy sources in the years 2000 and 2010.
C)
2
1
21
In a scatterplot of this data, where renewable energy
O
1
2
consumption in the year 2000 is plotted along the
Time (years)
x-axis and renewable energy consumption in the year
2010 is plotted along the y-axis for each of the given
energy sources, how many data points would be
D)
above the line y = x ?
2
A)
1
1
B)
2
O
C)
3
1
2
Time (years)
D) 4
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46
CONTINUE
4
4
22
23
Of the following, which best approximates the
The tables below give the distribution of high
percent decrease in consumption of wood power in
temperatures in degrees Fahrenheit (°F) for City A
the United States from 2000 to
2010
?
and City B over the same 21 days in March.
A)
6%
City A
B)
11%
Temperature (°F)
Frequency
C)
21%
D)
26%
80
3
79
14
78
2
77
1
76
1
City B
Temperature (°F)
Frequency
80
6
79
3
78
2
77
4
76
6
Which of the following is true about the data shown
for these 21 days?
A) The standard deviation of temperatures in
City A is larger.
B) The standard deviation of temperatures in
City B is larger.
C) The standard deviation of temperatures in
City A is the same as that of City B.
D) The standard deviation of temperatures in these
cities cannot be calculated with the data
provided.
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47
CONTINUE
4
4
24
25
D
3
2
f(x
)=2x
+6x
+4x
B
2
g(x)= x
+3x
+2
The polynomials f (x) and g(x) are defined above.
Which of the following polynomials is divisible by
2x
+3 ?
A
A) h(x)= f(x)+ g(x)
B) p(x)= f(x
)+3 (
)
In the circle above, segment AB is a diameter. If the
C) r(x) = 2f (x) + 3g(x)
length of arc
DB is 8π, what is the length of the
D) s(x
)=3 (
)+2 (
)
radius of the circle?
A)
2
B)
4
C)
8
D) 16
26
Let x and y be numbers such thaty < x < y.
Which of the following must be true?
I.
x
<y
II. x > 0
III. y > 0
A) I only
B) I and II only
C) I and III only
D) I, II, and III
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48
CONTINUE
4
4
27
average housing cost for the city
The relative housing cost for a US city is defined to be the ratio
,
expressed as a
national average housing cost
percent.
y
450
400
350
300
250
200
150
100
50
0
x
0
Population density
(people/square mile land area)
The scatterplot above shows the relative housing cost and the population density for several large US cities in the year
2005. The line of best fit is also shown and has equation y = 0.0125x + 61. Which of the following best explains how
the number 61 in the equation relates to the scatterplot?
A) In 2005, the lowest housing cost in the United States was about $61 per month.
B) In 2005, the lowest housing cost in the United States was about 61% of the highest housing cost.
C) In 2005, even in cities with low population densities, housing costs were never below 61% of the national average.
D) In 2005, even in cities with low population densities, housing costs were likely at least 61% of the national average.
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49
CONTINUE
4
4
28
30
f (x) = (x + 6)(x − 4)
y
Which of the following is an equivalent form of the
5
function f above in which the minimum value of f
4
appears as a constant or coefficient?
3
2
2
A) f (x) = x
− 24
1
2
B) f (x) = x
+ 2x − 24
x
–5
-4
-3
-2
1
2
3
4
5
2
-1 -1
C) f (x) = (x − 1)
− 21
–2
2
D) f (x) = (x + 1)
− 25
-3
–4
-5
11
3
The function f (x) = x
x2x
is graphed in
4
the xy-plane above. If k is a constant such that the
29
equation f (x) = k has three real solutions, which of
If x is the average (arithmetic mean) of m and 9,
y is the average of 2m and 15, and z is the average
the following could be the value of k ?
of 3m and 18, what is the average of x, y, and z in
terms of m ?
A)
2
A) m + 6
B)
0
B) m + 7
C)
−2
C)
2m + 14
D) −3
D) 3m + 21
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50
CONTINUE
4
4
7
Answer:
Answer: 2.5
12
DIRECTIONS
Write
For questions 31-38, solve the problem and
answer
7
/
1
2
2
5
in boxes.
enter your answer in the grid, as described
/
/
Fraction
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line
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point
0
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0
1. Although not required, it is suggested that
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1
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Grid in
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result.
accurately. You will receive credit only if the
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5
5
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6
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4. Some problems may have more than one
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correct answer. In such cases, grid only one
9
9
9
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answer.
1
2
5. Mixed numbers such as
3
must be gridded
Acceptable ways to grid are:
2
3
as 3.5 or 7/2. (If
3
1
/
2
is entered into the
/
/
2
/
3
6
6
6
6
6
7
31
1
/
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grid, it will be interpreted as
, not
3
.)
2
2
6. Decimal answers: If you obtain a decimal
0
0
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0
0
0
0
0
0
answer with more digits than the grid can
1
1
1
1
1
1
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accommodate, it may be either rounded or
2
2
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truncated, but it must fill the entire grid.
3
3
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Answer: 201 - either position is correct
NOTE: You
2
0
1
2
0
1
may start your
answers in any
/
/
/
/
column, space
permitting.
0
0
0
0
0
0
Columns you
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
don’t need to
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
use should be
left blank.
3
3
3
3
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51
CONTINUE
4
4
31
33
A partially filled pool contains 600 gallons of water.
The pes, a Roman measure of length, is
A hose is turned on, and water flows into the pool at
approximately equal to 11.65 inches. It is also
the rate of 8 gallons per minute. How many gallons
equivalent to 16 smaller Roman units called digits.
of water will be in the pool after 70 minutes?
Based on these relationships, 75 Roman digits is
equivalent to how many feet, to the nearest
hundredth? (12 inches = 1 foot)
32
The normal systolic blood pressure P, in millimeters
34
of mercury, for an adult male x years old can be
In a study of bat migration habits, 240 male bats and
x
+ 220
modeled by the equation P
=
. According to
160 female bats have been tagged. If 100 more female
2
the model, for every increase of 1 year in age, by how
bats are tagged, how many more male bats must be
3
many millimeters of mercury will the normal systolic
tagged so that
5 ofthetotalnumberofbatsinthe
blood pressure for an adult male increase?
study are male?
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4
4
35
36
1
2
B
q = nv
2
The dynamic pressure q generated by a fluid moving
x°
with velocity v can be found using the formula
A
O
above, where n is the constant density of the fluid.
An aeronautical engineer uses the formula to find the
dynamic pressure of a fluid moving with velocity v
and the same fluid moving with velocity 1.5v. What
is the ratio of the dynamic pressure of the faster fluid
Note: Figure not drawn to scale.
to the dynamic pressure of the slower fluid?
In the figure above, the circle has center O and has
radius 10. If the length of arc AB (shown in bold) is
between 5 and 6, what is one possible integer
value of x ?
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4
4
38
Questions 37 and 38 refer to the following
To the nearest dollar, what does the analyst believe
information.
the value of the stock will be at the end of three
The stock price of one share in a certain company is
weeks? (Note: Disregard the $ sign when gridding
your answer.)
worth $360 today. A stock analyst believes that the stock
will lose 28 percent of its value each week for the next
three weeks. The analyst uses the equation V = 360(r)t
to model the value, V, of the stock after t weeks.
37
What value should the analyst use for r ?
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SAT
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DIRECTIONS
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As you read the passage below, consider how Paul Bogard uses
• evidence, such as facts or examples, to support claims.
• reasoning to develop ideas and to connect claims and evidence.
• stylistic or persuasive elements, such as word choice or appeals to emotion,
to add power to the ideas expressed.
Adapted from Paul Bogard, “Let There Be Dark.” ©2012 by Los Angeles Times.
Originally published December 21, 2012.
1
At my family’s cabin on a Minnesota lake, I knew woods so dark that my hands
disappeared before my eyes. I knew night skies in which meteors left smoky trails
across sugary spreads of stars. But now, when 8 of 10 children born in the
United States will never know a sky dark enough for the Milky Way, I worry we are
rapidly losing night’s natural darkness before realizing its worth. This winter solstice,
as we cheer the days’ gradual movement back toward light, let us also remember the
irreplaceable value of darkness.
2
All life evolved to the steady rhythm of bright days and dark nights. Today, though,
when we feel the closeness of nightfall, we reach quickly for a light switch. And too
little darkness, meaning too much artificial light at night, spells trouble for all.
3
Already the World Health Organization classifies working the night shift as a
probable human carcinogen, and the American Medical Association has voiced its
unanimous support for “light pollution reduction efforts and glare reduction efforts
at both the national and state levels.” Our bodies need darkness to produce the
hormone melatonin, which keeps certain cancers from developing, and our bodies
need darkness for sleep. Sleep disorders have been linked to diabetes, obesity,
cardiovascular disease and depression, and recent research suggests one main cause
of “short sleep” is “long light.” Whether we work at night or simply take our tablets,
notebooks and smartphones to bed, there isn’t a place for this much artificial light in
our lives.
4
The rest of the world depends on darkness as well, including nocturnal and
crepuscular species of birds, insects, mammals, fish and reptiles. Some examples are
well known—the 400 species of birds that migrate at night in North America, the sea
turtles that come ashore to lay their eggs—and some are not, such as the bats that
save American farmers billions in pest control and the moths that pollinate 80% of
the world’s flora. Ecological light pollution is like the bulldozer of the night, wrecking
habitat and disrupting ecosystems several billion years in the making. Simply put,
without darkness, Earth’s ecology would collapse
5
In today’s crowded, louder, more fast-paced world, night’s darkness can provide
solitude, quiet and stillness, qualities increasingly in short supply. Every religious
tradition has considered darkness invaluable for a soulful life, and the chance to
witness the universe has inspired artists, philosophers and everyday stargazers since
time began. In a world awash with electric light . . . how would Van Gogh have given
the world his “Starry Night”? Who knows what this vision of the night sky might
inspire in each of us, in our children or grandchildren?
6
Yet all over the world, our nights are growing brighter. In the United States and
Western Europe, the amount of light in the sky increases an average of about 6%
every year. Computer images of the United States at night, based on NASA
photographs, show that what was a very dark country as recently as the 1950s is now
nearly covered with a blanket of light. Much of this light is wasted energy, which
means wasted dollars. Those of us over 35 are perhaps among the last generation to
have known truly dark nights. Even the northern lake where I was lucky to spend my
summers has seen its darkness diminish.
7
It doesn’t have to be this way. Light pollution is readily within our ability to solve,
using new lighting technologies and shielding existing lights. Already, many cities
and towns across North America and Europe are changing to LED streetlights, which
offer dramatic possibilities for controlling wasted light. Other communities are
finding success with simply turning off portions of their public lighting after
midnight. Even Paris, the famed “city of light,” which already turns off its monument
lighting after 1 a.m., will this summer start to require its shops, offices and public
buildings to turn off lights after 2 a.m. Though primarily designed to save energy,
such reductions in light will also go far in addressing light pollution. But we will
never truly address the problem of light pollution until we become aware of the
irreplaceable value and beauty of the darkness we are losing.
Write an essay in which you explain how Paul Bogard builds an argument to
persuade his audience that natural darkness should be preserved. In your
essay, analyze how Bogard uses one or more of the features listed in the box
above (or features of your own choice) to strengthen the logic and
persuasiveness of his argument. Be sure that your analysis focuses on the most
relevant features of the passage.
Your essay should not explain whether you agree with Bogard’s claims, but
rather explain how Bogard builds an argument to persuade his audience.
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Answer Explanations
SAT
® Practice Test #4
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5LSA09
Answer Explanations
SAT Practice Test #4
Section 1: Reading Test
QUESTION 1.
Choice C is the best answer. Te narrator initially expresses uncertainty, or
uneasiness, over his decision to set out for the North Pole: “my motives in
this undertaking are not entirely clear” (lines 9-10). At the end of the pas-
sage, the narrator recognizes that because of this journey he is “on the brink
of knowing . . . not an ethereal mathematical spot,” the North Pole, but him-
self (lines 56-57).
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the narrator does not suggest that
he fears going on the expedition, doubts his own abilities, or feels disdain for
the North Pole.
QUESTION 2.
Choice D is the best answer. Lines 56-57 provide evidence that the narra-
tor eventually recognizes his motives for traveling to the North Pole: “What
I am on the brink of knowing, I now see, is not an ephemeral mathematical
spot but myself.” Te narrator initially was unsure of why he was traveling
to the North Pole, but realizes that he has embarked on a journey to find
himself.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not provide the best evi-
dence that the narrator eventually recognizes his motives for traveling to the
North Pole. Rather, choices A, B, and C all focus on the narrator’s prepara-
tions and expectations for the journey.
QUESTION 3.
Choice D is the best answer. In lines 1-6, the narrator says that he feels a
“vast yearning” and that his emotions are “complicated.” He explains that he
does “not understand quite what it is that the yearning desires.” In this con-
text, his emotions are “not readily verifiable,” or not completely understood.
1
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because in this context, “not readily verifi-
able” does not mean unable to be authenticated, likely to be contradicted, or
without empirical support.
QUESTION 4.
Choice C is the best answer. In lines 10-13, the narrator explains that “the
machinery of [his] destiny has worked in secret” to prepare him for this
journey, as “its clockwork” has propelled him to “this time and place.” By
using the phrases “the machinery” and “its clockwork,” the narrator is show-
ing that powerful and independent forces are causing him to journey to the
North Pole.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not indicate the main
purpose of lines 10-13. While lines 10-13 mention that these powerful and
independent forces have been working “for years, for a lifetime” to convince
the narrator to journey to the North Pole, they do not expose a hidden side
of the narrator, demonstrate the narrator’s manner, or explain the amount of
time the narrator has spent preparing for his expedition.
QUESTION 5.
Choice A is the best answer. In lines 20-21, the narrator states that many
people have perished while journeying to the North Pole: “Nobody has suc-
ceeded in this thing, and many have died.”
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the narrator does not indicate that
previous explorers have made surprising discoveries, have failed to deter-
mine the exact location of the North Pole, or had different motivations than
his own.
QUESTION 6.
Choice A is the best answer. In lines 20-21, the narrator provides evidence
that many previous explorers seeking the North Pole have perished in the
attempt: “Nobody has succeeded in this thing, and many have died.”
Choices B, C, and D do not mention previous explorers; therefore, these
lines do not provide the best evidence that explorers died while seeking the
North Pole.
QUESTION 7.
Choice B is the best answer. In lines 27-39, the narrator states that he is
“intent” on traveling to the North Pole but acknowledges that the journey
is absurd: “Who wants the North Pole! What good is it! Can you eat it? Will
it carry you from Gothenburg to Malmö like a railway?” By asking these
questions, the narrator recognizes that the North Pole has no practical value.
2
Still, the narrator admits that finding the North Pole is necessary, as it “must
nevertheless be sought for.”
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the narrator does not view his
expedition to the North Pole as immoral, socially beneficial, or scientifically
important.
QUESTION 8.
Choice D is the best answer. In lines 27-31, the narrator asks a series of rhe-
torical questions about the North Pole: “Who wants the North Pole! What
good is it! Can you eat it? Will it carry you from Gothenburg to Malmö like
a railway?” In this context, the narrator is suggesting that reaching the North
Pole has no foreseeable benefit or value to humanity; unlike trains that bring
travelers to specific destinations, the North Pole does not provide humans
with a specific benefit or form of convenience.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the question posed in lines 30-31
does not debate modes of travel, examine the proximity of cities that can be
reached by trains, or question how ofen people travel.
QUESTION 9.
Choice D is the best answer. In lines 48-49, the narrator states that the
North Pole “is an abstraction, a mathematical fiction” and that “no one but
a Swedish madman could take the slightest interest in it.” In this context, the
narrator is stating that people would not “take the slightest interest in,” or be
curious about, the North Pole.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because in this context, “take the slightest
interest in” does not mean to accept responsibility for, to possess little regard
for, or to pay no attention to something.
QUESTION 10.
Choice A is the best answer. In lines 49-51, the narrator describes his bal-
loon journey toward the North Pole: “Te wind is still from the south, bear-
ing us steadily northward at the speed of a trotting dog.” In this context, the
wind is “bearing,” or carrying, the narrator in a direction to the North.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because in this context, “bearing” does not
mean affecting, yielding, or enduring.
QUESTION 11.
Choice C is the best answer. Te author states that “demographic inver-
sion is not a proxy for population growth” (lines 32-33). In other words,
demographic inversion is distinct from population growth. Te author also
notes that demographic inversion is evident in many American cities, as it
3
“can occur in cities that are growing, those whose numbers are flat, and even
in those undergoing a modest decline in size” (lines 33-35).
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not summarize the first
paragraph.
QUESTION 12.
Choice D is the best answer. Te author notes that one of “the most power-
ful demographic events of the past decade [was] the movement of African
Americans out of central cities” (lines 14-17).
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the author does not state that the
unemployed, immigrants, or young professionals moved away from central-
city areas in large numbers in the early 2000s.
QUESTION 13.
Choice A is the best answer. Te author states that democratic inversion
“can occur in cities that are growing, those whose numbers are flat, and even
in those undergoing a modest decline in size” (lines 33-35). In this context,
cities whose “numbers,” or population size, are “flat” have static, or unchang-
ing, populations.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because in this context, “flat” does not
mean deflated, featureless, or obscure.
QUESTION 14.
Choice B is the best answer. Te author states that many major American
cities are currently experiencing economic hardship, or “enormous fiscal
problems,” because of “public pension obligations they incurred in the more
prosperous years of the past two decades” (lines 36-39). Te author then
provides the example of Chicago, a city that can no longer afford to pay the
“public services to which most of [its] citizens have grown to feel entitled”
(lines 41-43). Te author is arguing that many major American cities face
economic hardship due to past promises (such as public services) they made
to their constituents.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the passage does not discuss
expected tax increases, an inner-city tax base, or manufacturing production
as they relate to the financial status of many major American cities.
QUESTION 15.
Choice A is the best answer. In lines 36-39, the author provides evidence
that many major American cities are currently experiencing economic hard-
ship due to promises made in past years: “America’s major cities face enor-
mous fiscal problems, many of them the result of public pension obligations
4
they incurred in the more prosperous years of the past two decades.”
America’s major cities made past promises, such as “public pension obliga-
tions,” to their citizens, which caused their current financial situation.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not provide evidence that
many major American cities are currently experiencing economic hardship
due to promises made in past years.
QUESTION 16.
Choice C is the best answer. Te author explains how sociologist Ernest
W. Burgess determined that urban areas have a traditional four-zone struc-
ture (lines 54-63). He then states that Burgess was “right about the urban
America of 1974” (line 65) as it also followed the traditional four-zone
structure: “Virtually every city in the country had a downtown, where the
commercial life of the metropolis was conducted; it had a factory district
just beyond; it had districts of working-class residences just beyond that;
and it had residential suburbs for the wealthy and the upper middle class at
the far end of the continuum” (lines 66-71).
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the passage does not imply that
American cities in 1974 were witnessing the flight of minority populations
to the suburbs, had begun to lose their manufacturing sectors, or were
already experiencing demographic inversion.
QUESTION 17.
Choice C is the best answer. In lines 66-71, the author provides evidence
that American cities in 1974 had a traditional four-zone structure: “Virtually
every city in the country had a downtown, where the commercial life of
the metropolis was conducted; it had a factory district just beyond; it had
districts of working-class residences just beyond that; and it had residen-
tial suburbs for the wealthy and the upper middle class at the far end of
the continuum.”
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not provide evidence
that American urban cities in 1974 had a traditional four-zone structure.
Choice A references a seminal paper on the layout of American cities, choice
B identifies Burgess’s original theory, and choice D focuses on movement to
the suburbs.
QUESTION 18.
Choice A is the best answer. In lines 66-68, the author notes that American
cities in 1974 each had a “downtown, where the commercial life of the
metropolis was conducted.” In this context, the author is stating that these
cities “conducted,” or carried out, business, the “commercial life,” in down-
town areas.
5
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because in this context, “conducted” does
not mean supervised, regulated, or inhibited.
QUESTION 19.
Choice B is the best answer. Chart 1 shows the percentage of the US popu-
lation in 2010 that lived in non-metro, small metro, and large metro areas.
While the author cites census numbers, he notes that “when it comes to
measuring demographic inversion, raw census numbers are an ineffective
blunt instrument” (lines 11-13). Census data refer to the number of people
living in a specific area and the demographic information that’s been col-
lected on them. Te author would most likely consider the information in
chart 1 to be possibly accurate but an “ineffective blunt instrument” that’s
not truly informative.
Choices A and C are incorrect because the author would not consider census
data to be excellent or compelling. Choice D is incorrect because while the
author does not believe the census completely explains demographic inver-
sion, he would be unlikely to disagree with the census data.
QUESTION 20.
Choice A is the best answer. Chart 2 shows that the growth of all metro-
politan areas in the 1990s was higher than the growth in all metropolitan
areas in the 2000s: large metro areas experienced a growth of 14.3% in the
1990s versus a growth of 10.9% in the 2000s, small metro areas experienced
a growth of 13.1% in the 1990s versus a growth of 10.3% in the 2000s, and
non-metro areas experienced a growth of 9.0% in the 1990s versus a growth
of 4.5% in the 2000s.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately character-
ize the US growth rate by metro size from 2000-2010 as illustrated in chart 2.
QUESTION 21.
Choice D is the best answer. Chart 2 shows that in the 1990s the US pop-
ulation increased in large metro, small metro, and non-metro areas when
compared to the population growth experienced in the 1980s. Large metro
areas experienced a growth of 12.5% in the 1980s versus a growth of 14.3%
in the 1990s, small metro areas experienced a growth of 8.8% in the 1980s
versus a growth of 13.1% in the 1990s, and non-metro areas experienced a
growth of 1.8% in the 1980s versus a growth of 9.0% in the 1990s. Given this
information, the population grew more in all metro areas in the 1990s when
compared to the growth of those areas in the 1980s.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not draw an accurate con-
clusion about the US growth rate in the 1990s.
6
QUESTION 22.
Choice A is the best answer. Lines 9-11 introduce the focus of the passage:
“Welcome to the world of ‘pharming,’ in which simple genetic tweaks turn
animals into living pharmaceutical factories.” Te passage then discusses the
chronological development of “pharming,” and describes ATryn, a useful
drug produced afer decades of laboratory experiments.
Choices B and C are incorrect because the passage does not primarily evalu-
ate research or summarize long-term research findings. Choice D is incor-
rect because “pharming” is not a branch of scientific study.
QUESTION 23.
Choice C is the best answer. Te author is appreciative of pharming and
describes it as turning “animals into living pharmaceutical factories” (lines
10-11). She expresses a positive view of pharming in line 70, when she
describes its end result: “Et voilà—human medicine!”
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the author’s attitude about pharm-
ing is not accurately characterized as one of fear, disinterest, or surprise.
QUESTION 24.
Choice C is the best answer. In lines 19-21, the author explains that dairy
animals are “expert,” or capable, “protein producers.”
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in this context “expert” does not
mean knowledgeable, professional, or trained.
QUESTION 25.
Choice B is the best answer. In line 36, the author explains that the initial
transgenic studies were “lab-bound thought experiments come true.” Tose
first studies, in other words, were considered to be of theoretical value only.
Tey were not expected to yield products ready for human use.
Choices A and D are incorrect because the cost of animal research and the
molecular properties of certain animals are not discussed in the passage.
Choice C is incorrect because the passage does not suggest that all of the
transgenic studies were focused on anticoagulants.
QUESTION 26.
Choice C is the best answer. In lines 35-36, the author provides evidence
that the transgenic studies done in the 1980s and 1990s were not expected
to yield products ready for human use. Te author explains that the initial
transgenic studies were “merely gee-whiz, scientific geekery, lab-bound
thought experiments come true.”
7
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not provide evidence that
the transgenic studies done in the 1980s and 1990s were not expected to
yield products ready for human use. Choices A and B do not address the
transgenic studies, and choice D focuses on ATryn, a drug that was intended
for human use.
QUESTION 27.
Choice A is the best answer. Lines 42-44 explain that ATryn “acts as a
molecular bouncer, sidling up to clot-forming compounds and escorting
them out of the bloodstream.” Antithrombin can thus be seen as an agent
that reduces the amount of dangerous clots in the bloodstream.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the passage does not suggest that
antithrombin stems from a rare genetic mutation, is a sequence of DNA, or
occurs naturally in goats’ mammary glands.
QUESTION 28.
Choice B is the best answer. Lines 42-44 provide evidence that antithrom-
bin reduces compounds that lead to blood clots, as it acts as a “molecular
bouncer, sidling up to clot-forming compounds and escorting them out of
the bloodstream.”
Choices A, C, and D do not provide evidence that antithrombin reduces
compounds that lead to blood clots; these lines describe proteins, people
unable to produce antithrombin, and the production of ATryn.
QUESTION 29.
Choice B is the best answer. In lines 60-62, the description of female goats’
kids mentions that “some of them proved to be transgenic, the human gene
nestled safely in their cells.” Te statement “some of them” indicates that
while a number of the newborn goats were transgenic, others were not.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the passage does not suggest that
the female goats used in the initial experiment secreted antithrombin in
their milk afer giving birth, were the first animals to receive the microinjec-
tions, or had cells that contained genes usually found in humans.
QUESTION 30.
Choice D is the best answer. In lines 63-64, the parenthetical is added afer
the phrase “a promoter,” which is “(. . . a sequence of DNA that controls gene
activity).” Te parenthetical’s purpose is to define the term “promoter.”
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not correctly identify the
purpose of the parenthetical information in lines 63-64.
8
QUESTION 31.
Choice D is the best answer. Gold is a valuable element that commands
high prices, so calling something “liquid gold” implies that it has great value.
Because the pharmaceutical company GTC was producing the drug in order
to sell it, it can be inferred that describing ATryn as “liquid gold” means it
proved to be a lucrative product for GTC.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the phrase “liquid gold” does
not refer to the microinjection technique, efficiency in dairy production, or
transgenic goats being beneficial to dairy farmers.
QUESTION 32.
Choice D is the best answer. In lines 25-29, Burke describes the contract
between a person and society as one that is “not a partnership in things sub-
servient only to the gross animal existence of a temporary and perishable
nature. It is a partnership in all science; a partnership in all art; a partnership
in every virtue, and in all perfection.” Describing that contract as a partner-
ship in all things indicates its seriousness, while describing it as not being a
“temporary and perishable nature” implies its permanence.
Choice A is incorrect because line 27 states that the contract between a per-
son and society is not “temporary or perishable,” meaning it is not brief.
Choices B and C are incorrect because the passage does not compare the
contracts in terms of complexity or precision.
QUESTION 33.
Choice D is the best answer. In lines 1-9, Burke explains that people have
“consecrated the state” to “avoid . . . the evils of inconstancy and versatility,”
and that people should examine “the faults of the state . . . with pious awe
and trembling solitude.” Burke then explains that society is taught to “look
with horror on those children of their country who want to hack that aged
parent in pieces” (lines 10-12). Burke is arguing that children want to revise
the state, or “this aged parent,” by amending its faults. In this context, “state”
refers to a political entity, or government, that attempts to protect its citizens
from “the evils of inconstancy and versatility.”
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because in this context, “state” does not
mean style of living, position in life, or temporary condition.
QUESTION 34.
Choice A is the best answer. In lines 17-29, Burke argues that “subordinate
contracts,” are simply business agreements over traded goods, while the state
is not merely “a partnership agreement in a trade . . . or some other such
low concern . . . but a partnership in all science; a partnership in all art;
9
a partnership in every virtue, and in all perfection.” In this context, Burke is
stating that the state is not a contract consisting of “low” or petty concerns.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because in this context, “low” does not
mean weak, inadequate, or depleted.
QUESTION 35.
Choice D is the best answer. In lines 41-43, Paine asserts that “Every age and
generation must be as free to act for itself, in all cases, as the ages and genera-
tions which preceded it.” He later states that deceased citizens of a state should
no longer have “any authority in directing who shall be its governors, or how
its government shall be organized, or how administered” (lines 61-63). Paine
doesn’t believe, in other words, that the decisions of previous generations
should dictate the conditions of modern life and government.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately character-
ize the way Paine views historical precedents.
QUESTION 36.
Choice B is the best answer. In lines 30-34, Burke describes societal con-
tracts as long-term agreements that preserve the interests of past generations
and link the living and the dead into a “partnership.” Paine, however, states
that past generations have no “control” over the decisions made by living
(line 71) because the dead have “no longer any participation in the concerns
of this world” (lines 59-60).
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately character-
ize how Paine would respond to Burke’s claim that societal contracts link
past and current generations.
QUESTION 37.
Choice D is the best answer. Lines 67-72 provide the best evidence that
Paine would respond to Burke’s statement that society is a “partnership”
between past and current generations (lines 30-34) with the explanation that
the current generation cannot know what judgments the dead would make
about contemporary issues. In these lines Paine explains: “What possible
obligation, then, can exist between them; what rule or principle can be laid
down, that two nonentities, the one out of existence, and the other not in,
and who never can meet in this world, that the one should control the other
to the end of time?”
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the lines cited do not provide the
best evidence that Paine would respond to Burke’s statement that society is a
“partnership” between past and current generations (lines 30-34) by arguing
that the current generation cannot know what judgments the dead would
make about contemporary issues.
10
QUESTION 38.
Choice D is the best answer. Paine concludes Passage 2 with the argument
that because social issues change over time, the living should not try to
adhere to decisions made by former generations (lines 73-80). Burke, how-
ever, states that living citizens exist within a “universal kingdom” (line 35)
comprised of the living, the dead, and those who are not yet born. Burke
argues that the living do not have the right to change their government
based on “their speculations of a contingent improvement” (lines 36-37).
Terefore, Burke would disapprove of Paine’s concluding argument, as he
believes the living do not have sufficient justification for changing the exist-
ing governmental structure.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately describe
how Burke would likely have responded to Paine’s remarks in the final para-
graph of Passage 2.
QUESTION 39.
Choice D is the best answer. Lines 34-38 provide the best evidence that Burke
would disapprove of Paine’s remarks in the final paragraph of Passage 2: “Te
municipal corporations of that universal kingdom are not morally at liberty
at [the living’s] pleasure, and on their speculations of a contingent improve-
ment, wholly to separate and tear asunder the bands of their subordinate
community.” In these lines, Burke is arguing that the living do not have suf-
ficient justification to change the existing governmental structure.
Choices A, B, and C do not provide the best evidence that Burke would
disapprove of Paine’s remarks in the final paragraph of Passage 2, as Burke
believes the living do not have sufficient justification for changing the exist-
ing governmental structure.
QUESTION 40.
Choice A is the best answer. Te primary argument of Passage 1 is that an
inviolable contract exists between a people and its government, one that is
to be “looked on with other reverence” (lines 24-25). Passage 1 suggests that
this contract exists between past and future generations as well; in effect,
current and future generations should be governed by decisions made in the
past. Passage 2 challenges these points, as it argues that current and future
generations are not obligated to preserve past generations’ beliefs: “Te
Parliament or the people of 1688, or of any other period, had no more right
to dispose of the people of the present day, or to bind or to control them in
any shape whatever, than the parliament or the people of the present day
have to dispose of, bind, or control those who are to live a hundred or a
thousand years hence” (lines 48-54).
11
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Passage 2 does not offer an alter-
native approach to Passage 1, support an idea introduced in Passage 1, or
exemplify an attitude promoted in Passage 1.
QUESTION 41.
Choice B is the best answer. Passage 1 argues that the government is sacred
(lines 3-6) and that no person should interfere with it (lines 6-9). Passage 2
argues that people have the right to make changes to their government: “Te
circumstances of the world are continually changing, and the opinions of
men change also; and as government is for the living, and not for the dead, it
is the living only that has any right in it” (lines 73-76).
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not identify the main
purpose of both passages.
QUESTION 42.
Choice C is the best answer. Te author explains that a “powerful volcano”
erupted around 750 years ago and caused “a centuries-long cold snap known
as the Little Ice Age” (lines 1-3). Te author then states that a group of sci-
entists believe the volcano Samalas was this “powerful volcano,” and she
explains how the scientists’ research supports this claim (lines 17-78).
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not identify the main
purpose of the passage.
QUESTION 43.
Choice B is the best answer. Te author begins the passage by explaining
how the Little Ice Age was a “centuries-long cold snap” that was likely caused
by a volcanic eruption (lines 1-3). Te author then explains how scientists
used radiocarbon analysis to determine when the Little Ice Age began and
how a volcanic eruption triggered the cooling temperatures (lines 17-25).
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the passage does not criticize a
scientific model, offer a new method of measuring sulfates, or shif from the
use of radiocarbon dating to an examination of volcanic glass.
QUESTION 44.
Choice A is the best answer. In lines 17-25, the passage shifs focus from
describing a recorded event to providing evidence that the Little Ice Age was
likely caused by a volcanic eruption. Te passage states that scientists used
“radiocarbon dating of dead plant material from beneath the ice caps on
Baffin Island and Iceland, as well as ice and sediment core data” to determine
when the Little Ice Age began and how it was connected to the “mystery”
volcanic eruption.
12
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not provide the best evi-
dence that the passage shifs focus from a description of a recorded event to
its likely cause. Choices B, C, and D all focus on the scientists’ research but
do not explain what caused the Little Ice Age.
QUESTION 45.
Choice D is the best answer. According to lines 5-8, “Tat a powerful volcano
erupted somewhere in the world, sometime in the Middle Ages, is written in
polar ice cores in the form of layers of sulfate deposits and tiny shards of volca-
nic glass.” Te phrase “is written in” reinforces the idea that the polar ice caps
contain evidence of the volcanic eruption, and that scientists can interpret this
evidence by examining the “sulfate deposits and tiny shards of volcanic glass.”
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the author does not use the phrase
“is written in” to demonstrate the concept of the hands-on nature of the sci-
entists’ work, highlight the fact that scientists ofen write about their work,
or underscore the sense of importance scientists have about their work.
QUESTION 46.
Choice A is the best answer. Te scientists believe the volcano Samalas,
located in Indonesia, was most likely the medieval volcanic eruption
(lines 33-35). Te eruption likely occurred near the equator because an
equatorial location is “consistent with the apparent climate impacts” the sci-
entists observed (lines 61-67).
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the scientists do not suggest
that the medieval volcanic eruption was located in the Arctic region, the
Antarctic region, or Ecuador.
QUESTION 47.
Choice D is the best answer. In lines 61-64, the author cites geochemist
Gifford Miller’s findings that provide evidence that the medieval volcanic
eruption most likely occurred in Indonesia near the equator: “It’s not a total
surprise that an Indonesian volcano might be the source of the eruption,
Miller says. ‘An equatorial eruption is more consistent with the apparent cli-
mate impacts.’”
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not provide evidence that
the medieval volcanic eruption most likely occurred in Indonesia near the
equator. Rather, choices A, B, and C focus on the medieval volcano’s power,
impact, and magnitude.
QUESTION 48.
Choice C is the best answer. In lines 68-71, the author states, “Another possible
candidate—both in terms of timing and geographical location—is Ecuador’s
13
Quilotoa, estimated to have last erupted between 1147 and 1320 C.E.” Te
phrase “another possible candidate” implies that the scientists believe that in
the Middle Ages a different volcanic eruption, such as an eruption from the vol-
cano Quilotoa, could have been responsible for the onset of the Little Ice Age.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the phrase “another possible can-
didate” does not imply the frequency or effects of volcanic eruptions, or that
some volcanoes have large calderas.
QUESTION 49.
Choice D is the best answer. In lines 71-75, the author explains how
Lavigne’s team proved that Quilotoa’s eruption did not cause the Little
Ice Age:
“But when Lavigne’s team examined shards of volcanic glass from this vol-
cano, they found that they didn’t match the chemical composition of the
glass found in polar ice cores, whereas the Samalas glass is a much closer
match.” Tese findings show that Samalas, not Quilotoa, was responsible for
the onset of the Little Ice Age.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they focus on the difficulty of
identifying the volcano responsible for the Little Ice Age, the magnitude of
the volcanic eruption, and the researchers’ experiment.
QUESTION 50.
Choice C is the best answer. Te data in the figure show the greatest below-
average temperature variation occurred in 1675 CE, as the temperature
reached a variation of −1.0° Celsius.
Choice A is incorrect because the figure shows that the temperature in
1200 CE was above average (+0.25° Celsius). Choices B and D are incor-
rect because the below-average temperature variation reported in 1675 CE
(at −1.0° Celsius) was greater than the below-average temperature varia-
tion reported for 1375 CE (around −0.25° Celsius) and 1750 CE (around
(−0.5° Celsius).
QUESTION 51.
Choice B is the best answer. Te passage says that the Little Ice Age began
“about 750 years ago” (line 1) and that “the cold summers and ice growth
began abruptly between 1275 and 1300 C.E.” (lines 23-24). Te figure indicates
that average temperatures in central England began to drop around 1275 CE,
and this drop in temperatures continued “through the 1700s” (line 32).
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the passage and figure do not
indicate that the Little Ice Again began around 1150 CE, just before 1500 CE,
or around 1650 CE.
14
QUESTION 52.
Choice A is the best answer. Te figure shows that the greatest cooling
period of the Little Ice Age occurred between 1500 and 1700 CE; it also
shows that the greatest warming period of the Medieval Warm Period
occurred between 1150 and 1250 CE. Terefore, the Little Ice Age’s greatest
cooling occurred a couple of centuries, or “hundreds of years,” afer the tem-
perature peaks of the Medieval Warm Period.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the figure does not focus on equa-
torial volcanic eruptions, pyroclastic flows, or radiocarbon analysis.
Section 2: Writing and Language Test
QUESTION 1.
Choice B is the best answer because the relative clause appropriately modi-
fies the noun “work” in the preceding independent clause.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because each creates a comma splice.
QUESTION 2.
Choice B is the best answer because it creates the appropriate contrasting
transition from the fact that the first two panels were painted during the day
to the fact that the third panel was painted at night.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because each creates an inappropriate
transition from the previous sentence. Choice A and choice D imply addi-
tion rather than contrast. Choice C results in an incomplete sentence.
QUESTION 3.
Choice B is the best answer because it creates an appropriate appositive to
the subject “mural,” and is correctly set off by commas on both sides.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because each is incorrectly punctuated.
Choice A lacks a comma afer “centerpiece,” choice C unnecessarily intro-
duces an independent clause, and choice D contains an em dash that has no
parallel earlier in the sentence.
QUESTION 4.
Choice A is the best answer because it explicitly introduces the explanation
for the behavior (painting at night) described in the previous paragraph.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because none alludes to the artist’s paint-
ing at night, which is described at the end of the previous paragraph and
explained in this paragraph.
15
QUESTION 5.
Choice D is the best answer because it refers to an action that can be per-
formed on a physical object such as a mural.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each refers to an action that is
performed on information rather than on a physical object.
QUESTION 6.
Choice B is the best answer because it creates a past tense construction
consistent with the verb “was dominated.”
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because none is consistent with the verb
tense established earlier in the sentence.
QUESTION 7.
Choice D is the best answer because it is the most precise choice, specifying
the noun that the demonstrative pronoun “this” refers to.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each provides a vague, nonspecific
pronoun that does not concretely define a referent.
QUESTION 8.
Choice B is the best answer because it correctly places and punctuates the
appositive phrase that describes the “Chicano mural movement.”
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because each contains awkward syntax
that obscures the relationship between the key noun phrases “an explosion
of mural painting” and “the Chicano mural movement.”
QUESTION 9.
Choice C is the best answer because it creates parallel construction
within the list of locations (“in abandoned lots, on unused buildings, or on
infrastructure”).
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because none follows the construction
established within the list of locations.
QUESTION 10.
Choice A is the best answer because it alludes to the uniquely high level of
investment, described in the next sentence, that the new group of artists is
making in restoring and publicizing “América Tropical.”
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because each fails to express the connec-
tion between the general restoration efforts mentioned in the previous sen-
tence and the specific role of “América Tropical” in these efforts, which is
described in the next sentence.
16
QUESTION 11.
Choice C is the best answer because details of the initial reaction to
Siqueiros’s mural and its subsequent rediscovery are given previously in
the passage and are not needed to set up the forward-looking sentence that
follows.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because each provides an inaccurate inter-
pretation of the sentence that the writer is considering adding.
QUESTION 12.
Choice D is the best answer because without the underlined portion, the
sentence contains an appropriate parallel contrast between the phrases
“organically grown crops” and “conventionally grown counterparts,” each of
which describes crops.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each creates an illogical compari-
son: crops to “people,” crops to “purchase,” and crops to “purchasing.”
QUESTION 13.
Choice B is the best answer because it provides the subject “consumers,”
creating a complete sentence and providing a referent for the pronoun
“they” that appears later in the sentence.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because each lacks the subject that the
sentence requires and none provide a referent for “they.”
QUESTION 14.
Choice D is the best answer because it efficiently creates a contrast with
“organically grown.”
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they are unnecessarily wordy and
repeat information given in previous sentences.
QUESTION 15.
Choice C is the best answer because it sets up the contrast between the
added expense of organic food and the evidence that suggests a lack of ben-
efits from eating organic food.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because each fails to acknowledge the con-
trast between the last sentence in the paragraph and the previous sentences.
QUESTION 16.
Choice C is the best answer because “maintain” is commonly used to
describe advocating a position in an argument.
17
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because none is appropriate in the context
of describing an opinion advocated by a group of people.
QUESTION 17.
Choice A is the best answer because the transitional phrase “For instance”
sets up an example supporting the point, made in the previous sentence, that
organic food may not contain more vitamins and minerals than convention-
ally grown food.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because none indicates that the sentence is
providing an example supporting the point made in the previous sentence.
QUESTION 18.
Choice C is the best answer because it accurately identifies the reason that
the writer should not add the proposed sentence: the paragraph is about evi-
dence of nutritional content, not the availability of organic food.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because each provides an inaccurate inter-
pretation of the proposed sentence’s relationship to the passage.
QUESTION 19.
Choice A is the best answer because the plural verb “have” is consistent
with the plural subject “amounts.”
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because each is a singular verb, which is
inconsistent with the plural subject “amounts.”
QUESTION 20.
Choice C is the best answer because the example it supplies, that pesticides
can be minimized by washing or peeling produce, supports the claim that
nonorganic food is safe.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because none supports the paragraph’s
claim about the safety of nonorganic food.
QUESTION 21.
Choice B is the best answer because the plural noun phrase “numerous
other reasons” must be preceded by a plural verb and a pronoun that does
not indicate possession: “there are.”
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because each contains the singular verb
“is,” the possessive pronoun “their,” or both.
QUESTION 22.
Choice D is the best answer because a nonrestrictive clause must be pre-
ceded by a comma; in addition, “such as” is never followed by a comma.
18
In this case, the list of reasons supporting the claim that there are benefits
to buying organic food is nonrestrictive; the list tells the reader something
about organic food but does not restrict or place limits on organic food.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each places erroneous punc-
tuation afer the phrase “such as.” Choices B and C also lack the necessary
comma preceding “such as.”
QUESTION 23.
Choice C is the best answer because “intriguing” conveys a realistic level
of interest for the entertaining but ultimately inconsequential question of
regional differences in words for carbonated beverages.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because each mocks the topic of regional
words for carbonated beverages.
QUESTION 24.
Choice C is the best answer because “but also” is the appropriate transition
to complete the correlative pair “not only . . . but also,” which begins earlier
in the sentence.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because each fails to complete the phrase
“not only . . . but also.”
QUESTION 25.
Choice B is the best answer because it is consistent with the fact that there
remains a “veritable army of trained volunteers traveling the country” and
because it uses “still” to contrast this method with the “new avenues.”
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because none is consistent with the infor-
mation contained later in the passage.
QUESTION 26.
Choice D is the best answer because it uses the relative pronoun “who” to
avoid needless repetition of the word “scholars.”
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each unnecessarily repeats the
word “scholars.”
QUESTION 27.
Choice C is the best answer because the new sentence provides a logical tran-
sition from sentences 3 and 4, which describe the data collection, to sentence
5, which explains that completing the dictionary took far longer than expected.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because each fails to create a logical transi-
tion between the preceding and subsequent sentences.
19
QUESTION 28.
Choice A is the best answer because the singular verb “requires” agrees with
the singular subject “research.”
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not create subject-verb
agreement.
QUESTION 29.
Choice D is the best answer because a colon is the correct punctuation to
introduce the elaborating phrase that follows the word “army.”
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because none provides the appropriate
punctuation.
QUESTION 30.
Choice B is the best answer because it contains both the correct word to
refer to an Internet location—“site”—and the correct preposition to com-
plete the collocation “in search of.”
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because each contains a word that does
not refer to an Internet location, and choices C and D contain the wrong
preposition.
QUESTION 31.
Choice C is the best answer because it correctly associates each beverage
term with the region described in the sentence according to the information
contained in the map.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because each contradicts the information
contained in the map.
QUESTION 32.
Choice B is the best answer because it contains the two plural possessive
pronouns needed to refer to the subject “findings”—“their” and “their.”
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because each contains a word frequently
confused with “their.”
QUESTION 33.
Choice A is the best answer because it provides a summary and evaluation
of gathering data from the Internet, which is the focus of the paragraph.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because each is either irrelevant to the
main point of the paragraph or unnecessarily repeats information.
20
QUESTION 34.
Choice C is the best answer because it uses the present tense, which is con-
sistent with the verbs that appear later in the sentence.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they create awkward shifs in
tense.
QUESTION 35.
Choice C is the best answer because the em dashes correctly bracket the
examples of the types of elements.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because each uses either inconsistent or
incorrect punctuation to set off the types of elements.
QUESTION 36.
Choice B is the best answer because a period is an appropriate way to sepa-
rate the two independent clauses that meet at the underlined text.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because each either creates a comma
splice or lacks necessary punctuation.
QUESTION 37.
Choice D is the best answer because the proposed sentence to be added is a
paraphrase of the sentence before it, containing the same ideas.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because none fully acknowledges the rela-
tionship between the proposed sentence to be added and the other sentences
in the paragraph.
QUESTION 38.
Choice A is the best answer because it highlights the importance of the
game designer’s communication with others, which is the paragraph’s
main point.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because none describes communica-
tion originating with the game designer, which is the main focus of the
paragraph.
QUESTION 39.
Choice C is the best answer because the importance of communication is
established in the previous sentences. Te transition “consequently” best
captures the fact that the designer must be skilled in this area.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because each contains a transition that
either repeats information or creates an illogical relationship between this
sentence and the previous sentences.
21
QUESTION 40.
Choice B is the best answer because it provides the singular nouns “writer”
and “speaker” to agree with the singular pronoun “anyone.”
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because none creates pronoun-referent
agreement.
QUESTION 41.
Choice D is the best answer because it expresses in the clearest, simplest
way the idea that many game designers start out as programmers.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each is unnecessarily wordy and
obscures meaning.
QUESTION 42.
Choice D is the best answer because it logically and appropriately modifies
the phrase “collaboration skills.”
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because none appropriately describes the
value of collaboration skills.
QUESTION 43.
Choice A is the best answer because it provides a logical subject for the
modifying phrase “demanding and deadline driven.”
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because each creates a dangling modifier.
QUESTION 44.
Choice B is the best answer because sentence 5 expresses the main point
upon which the paragraph elaborates.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because none places sentence 5 in the
appropriate position to set up the details contained in the paragraph.
Section 3: Math Test — No Calculator
QUESTION 1.
Choice A is correct. Te expression |x − 1| −1 will equal 0 if |x − 1| = 1. Tis
is true for x = 2 and for x = 0. For example, substituting x = 2 into the expres-
sion |x − 1| − 1 and simplifying the result yields |2 − 1| − 1 = |1| − 1 = 1 − 1 = 0.
Terefore, there is a value of x for which |x − 1| − 1 is equal to 0.
Choice B is incorrect. By definition, the absolute value of any expression
is a nonnegative number. Substituting any value for x into the expression
22
|x + 1| will yield a nonnegative number as the result. Because the sum of
a nonnegative number and a positive number is positive, |x + 1| + 1 will
be a positive number for any value of x. Terefore, |x + 1| + 1 ≠ 0 for any
value of x. Choice C is incorrect. By definition, the absolute value of any
expression is a nonnegative number. Substituting any value for x into the
expression |1 − x| will yield a nonnegative number as the result. Because the
sum of a nonnegative number and a positive number is positive, |1 − x| + 1
will be a positive number for any value of x. Therefore, |1 − x| + 1 ≠ 0 for
any value of x. Choice D is incorrect. By definition, the absolute value of any
expression is a nonnegative number. Substituting any value for x into the
expression |x − 1| will yield a nonnegative number as the result. Because the
sum of a nonnegative number and a positive number is positive, |x − 1| + 1
will be a positive number for any value of x. Terefore, |x − 1| + 1 ≠ 0 for any
value of x.
QUESTION 2.
Choice A is correct. Since f(x) =  _
2x + b and f(6) = 7, substituting 6 for x in
f(x) =  _
2x + b gives f(6) =  2(6) + b = 7. Ten, solving the equation 2(6) + b = 7
for b gives  18 
2 + b = 7, or 9 + b = 7. Tus, b = 7 − 9 = −2. Substituting this
value back into the original function gives f(x) =  _
2x − 2; therefore, one can
evaluate f( −2) by substituting −2 for x:  _
2(−2) − 2 = − 2  − 2 = −3 − 2 = −5.
Choice B is incorrect as it is the value of b, not of f(−2). Choice C is incorrect
as it is the value of f(2), not of f(−2). Choice D is incorrect as it is the value of
f(6), not of f(−2).
QUESTION 3.
Choice A is correct. Te first equation can be rewritten as x = 6y. Substituting
6y for x in the second equation gives 4(y + 1) = 6y. Te lef-hand side can be
rewritten as 4y + 4, giving 4y + 4 = 6y. Subtracting 4y from both sides of the
equation gives 4 = 2y, or y = 2.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect and may be the result of a computational
or conceptual error when solving the system of equations.
QUESTION 4.
Choice B is correct. If f(x) = − 2x + 5, then one can evaluate f(−3x) by sub-
stituting −3x for every instance of x. Tis yields f(−3x) = −2 (−3x) + 5, which
simplifies to 6x + 5.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect and may be the result of miscalculations
in the substitution or of misunderstandings of how to evaluate f(−3x).
23
QUESTION 5.
Choice C is correct. Te expression 3(2x + 1)(4x + 1) can be simplified
by first distributing the 3 to yield (6x + 3)(4x + 1), and then expanding to
obtain 24x2 + 12x + 6x + 3. Combining like terms gives 24x2 + 18x + 3.
Choice A is incorrect and may be the result of performing the term-by-term
multiplication of 3(2x + 1)(4x + 1) and treating every term as an x-term.
Choice B is incorrect and may be the result of correctly finding (6x + 3)(4x + 1),
but then multiplying only the first terms, (6x)(4x), and the last terms, (3)(1),
but not the outer or inner terms. Choice D is incorrect and may be the result
of incorrectly distributing the 3 to both terms to obtain (6x + 3)(12x + 3), and
then adding 3 + 3 and 6x + 12x and incorrectly adding the exponents of x.
QUESTION 6.
Choice B is correct. Te equation  a b b
=  _  
7 can be rewritten as  b  −  b =  7,
from which it follows that  _
b− 1 =  7 , or b  = 7  + 1 =
7 .
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect and may be the result of calculation errors
in rewriting  a b 
=  _
7. For example, choice A may be the result of a sign
error in rewriting  a b b
as  _
b+  b = b  + 1.
QUESTION 7.
Choice D is correct. In Amelia’s training schedule, her longest run in week 16
will be 26 miles and her longest run in week 4 will be 8 miles. Tus, Amelia
increases the distance of her longest run by 18 miles over the course of
12 weeks. Since Amelia increases the distance of her longest run each week
by a constant amount, the amount she increases the distance of her longest
run each week is  26 − 8 
16 − 4=  12 = 2  = 1.5 miles.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because none of these training schedules
would result in increasing Amelia’s longest run from 8 miles in week 4 to
26 miles in week 16. For example, choice A is incorrect because if Amelia
increases the distance of her longest run by 0.5 miles each week and has
her longest run of 8 miles in week 4, her longest run in week 16 would be
8 + 0.5 ∙ 12 = 14 miles, not 26 miles.
QUESTION 8.
Choice A is correct. For an equation of a line in the form y = mx + b, the
constant m is the slope of the line. Tus, the line represented by y = −3x + 4
has slope −3. Lines that are parallel have the same slope. To find out which
of the given equations represents a line with the same slope as the line
represented by y = −3x + 4, one can rewrite each equation in the form
y = mx + b, that is, solve each equation for y. Choice A, 6x + 2y = 15, can
24
be rewritten as 2y = −6x + 15 by subtracting 6x from each side of the equa-
tion. Ten, dividing each side of 2y = −6x + 15 by 2 gives y = − _
2x +  
2  =
−3x +  15 
2. Terefore, this line has slope −3 and is parallel to the line repre-
sented by y = −3x + 4. (Te lines are parallel, not coincident, because they
have different y-intercepts.)
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect and may be the result of common misun-
derstandings about which value in the equation of a line represents the slope
of the line.
QUESTION 9.
_
Choice D is correct. Te question states that √  
x a
= x − 4 and that a = 2,
so substituting 2 for a in the equation yields √ 
x 2
= x − 4. To solve for x,
square each side of the equation, which gives (√ 
x − 2
) 2 = (x − 4 )2, or x − 2 =
(x − 4 )2. Ten, expanding (x − 4 )2 yields x − 2 = x2 −8x + 16, or 0 = x2 − 9x + 18.
Factoring the right-hand side gives 0 = (x − 3)(x − 6), and so x = 3 or x = 6.
However, for x = 3, the original equation becomes √ 
3 − 2
= 3 − 4, which yields
1 = −1, which is not true. Hence, x = 3 is an extraneous solution that arose from
squaring each side of the equation. For x = 6, the original equation becomes
_
√ 
6 − 2
= 6 − 4, which yields √ 
4 
= 2, or 2 = 2. Since this is true, the solution set
of √ 
x − 2
= x − 4 is {6}.
Choice A is incorrect because it includes the extraneous solution in the solu-
tion set. Choice B is incorrect and may be the result of a calculation or fac-
toring error. Choice C is incorrect because it includes only the extraneous
solution, and not the correct solution, in the solution set.
QUESTION 10.
t + 5
Choice D is correct. Multiplying each side of  
10 by t − 5 gives t + 5 =
t − 5=
10(t − 5). Distributing the 10 over the values in the parentheses yields t + 5 =
10t − 50. Subtracting t from each side of the equation gives 5 = 9t − 50, and
then adding 50 to each side gives 55 = 9t. Finally, dividing each side by 9 yields
t =  9 .
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect and may be the result of calculation errors
or using the distribution property improperly.
QUESTION 11.
Choice C is correct. Since y = (2x − 3)(x + 9) and x = 2y + 5, it follows
that x = 2((2x − 3 )(x + 9 )) + 5 = 4x2 + 30x − 54. Tis can be rewritten
as 4x2 + 29x − 54 = 0. Because the discriminant of this quadratic equa-
tion, 292 − (4)(−54) = 292 + 4(54), is positive, this equation has 2 distinct
roots. Using each of the roots as the value of x and finding y from the equa-
tion x = 2y + 5 gives 2 ordered pairs (x, y) that satisfy the given system of
25
equations. Since no other value of x satisfies 4x2 + 29x − 54 = 0, there are
no other ordered pairs that satisfy the given system. Terefore, there are
2 ordered pairs (x, y) that satisfy the given system of equations.
Choices A and B are incorrect and may be the result of either a miscalculation
or a conceptual error. Choice D is incorrect because a system of one quadratic
equation and one linear equation cannot have infinitely many solutions.
QUESTION 12.
Choice C is correct. Since the price of Ken’s sandwich was x dollars, and
Paul’s sandwich was $1 more, the price of Paul’s sandwich was x + 1 dollars.
Tus, the total cost of the sandwiches was 2x + 1 dollars. Since this cost
was split evenly, Ken and Paul each paid  2x2  1
= x + 0.5 dollars plus a 20%
tip. Afer adding the 20% tip, each of them paid (x + 0.5) + 0.2(x + 0.5) =
1.2(x + 0.5) = 1.2x + 0.6 dollars.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Tese expressions do not model the given
context. Tey may be the result of errors in setting up the expression or of
calculation errors.
QUESTION 13.
Choice B is correct. One can find the intersection points of the two graphs
by setting the functions f(x) and g(x) equal to one another and then solving
for x. Tis yields 8x2 − 2 = −8x2 + 2. Adding 8x2 and 2 to each side of the
equation gives 16x2 = 4. Ten dividing each side by 16 gives x2 =  _
4, and then
taking the square root of each side gives x = ±  _
2. From the graph, the value
of k is the x-coordinate of the point of intersection on the positive x-axis.
Terefore, k =  _
2.
Alternatively, since (k, 0 ) lies on the graph of both f and g, it follows that
f(k) = g(k) = 0. Thus, evaluating f(x) = 8x2 − 2 at x = k gives 0 = 8k2 − 2.
Adding 2 to each side yields 2 = 8k2 and then dividing each side by 8
gives  _
4 = k2. Taking the square root of each side then gives k = ± 2 . From the
graph, k is positive, so k =  _
2.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect and may be the result of calculation errors
in solving for x or k.
QUESTION 14.
Choice A is correct. To rewrite  8 − iin the standard form a + bi, multiply
3 − 2i
the numerator and denominator of  8 − iby the conjugate, 3 + 2i. Tis gives
3 − 2i
_
( 8 − i3 − 2i)(3 + 2i )
. Since i2 = −1, this last fraction
32 − (2i)2
26
_
=  26 13 3i,
which simplifies to 2 + i.
9 − (−4) 
Terefore, when  8 − iis rewritten in the standard form a + bi, the value
3 − 2i
of a is 2.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect and may be the result of errors in sym-
bolic manipulation. For example, choice B could be the result of mistakenly
rewriting  8 − i
as  _
3 − 2i
3 +  2 i.
QUESTION 15.
Choice B is correct. Te given quadratic equation can be rewritten as
2x2kx − 4p = 0. Applying the quadratic formula,  −b ± √ 
,
to this equa-
2a 
_
k2 + 32p 
√ 
tion with a = 2, b = −k, and c = −4p gives the solutions  _
4 ±  
4 
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect and may be the result of errors in applying
the quadratic formula.
QUESTION 16.
The correct answer is 9. Since the three shelves of the triangular shelf sys-
tem are parallel, the three triangles in the figure are similar. Since the shelves
divide the lef side of the largest triangle in the ratio 2 to 3 to 1, the similarity
ratios of the triangles are as follows.
„„
Smallest to middle: 2 to 5
„„
Smallest to largest: 2 to 6, or 1 to 3
„„
Middle to largest: 5 to 6
Te height of the largest shampoo bottle that can stand upright on the mid-
dle shelf is equal to the height of the middle shelf. Te height of the entire
triangular shelf system is 18 inches. Tis is the height of the largest triangle.
Te height of the middle shelf is the height of the middle triangle minus
the height of the smallest triangle. Since the similarity ratio of the mid-
dle triangle to the largest triangle is 5 to 6, the height of the middle shelf
is  _
6(18) = 15 inches. Since the similarity ratio of the smallest triangle to the
largest triangle is 1 to 3, the height of the middle shelf is  _
3(18) = 6 inches.
Terefore, the height of the middle shelf is 9 inches.
QUESTION 17.
The correct answer is .6 or _  
5. Te angles marked and are acute
angles in a right triangle. Tus, they are complementary angles. By the
complementary angle relationship between sine and cosine, it follows that
sin() = cos(). Terefore, the cosine of is .6. Either .6 or the equivalent
fraction  _
5 may be gridded as the correct answer.
27
Alternatively, since the sine of is .6, the ratio of the side opposite the
angle to the hypotenuse is .6. Te side opposite the angle is the side adja-
cent to the angle. Tus, the ratio of the side adjacent to the angle to the
hypotenuse, which is equal to the cosine of y°, is equal to .6.
QUESTION 18.
The correct answer is 5. Te four-term polynomial expression can be fac-
tored completely, by grouping, as follows:
(x3 − 5x2) + (2x − 10 ) = 0
x2 (x − 5 ) + 2 (x − 5 ) = 0
(x − 5 )(x2 + 2 ) = 0
By the zero product property, set each factor of the polynomial equal to 0
_
and solve each resulting equation for x. Tis gives x = 5 or x = ±i√ 
2 ,
respec-
tively. Because the question asks for the real value of x that satisfies the equa-
tion, the correct answer is 5.
QUESTION 19.
The correct answer is 0. Multiplying each side of −3x + 4y = 20 by 2 gives
−6x + 8y = 40. Adding each side of −6x + 8y = 40 to the corresponding
side of 6x + 3y = 15 gives 11y = 55, or y = 5. Finally, substituting 5 for y in
6x + 3y = 15 gives 6x + 3(5) = 15, or x = 0.
QUESTION 20.
The correct answer is 25. In the mesosphere, an increase of 10 kilome-
ters in the distance above Earth results in a decrease in the temperature by
k° Celsius where k is a constant. Tus, the temperature in the mesosphere is
linearly dependent on the distance above Earth. Using the values provided
and the slope formula, one can calculate the unit rate of change for the tem-
perature in the mesosphere to be  −80 − 50 )
=  −75
  . The slope indi-
30  =  −1
cates that, within the mesosphere, if the distance above Earth increases by 1
kilometer, the temperature decreases by 2.5° Celsius. Terefore, if the dis-
tance above Earth increases by (1 × 10 ) = 10 kilometers, the temperature will
decrease by (2.5 × 10 ) = 25° Celsius. Tus, the value of k is 25.
Section 4: Math Test — Calculator
QUESTION 1.
Choice B is correct. Let m be the number of movies Jill rented online during
the month. Since the monthly membership fee is $9.80 and there is an addi-
tional fee of $1.50 to rent each movie online, the total of the membership fee
and the movie rental fees, in dollars, can be written as 9.80 + 1.50m. Since
28
the total of these fees for the month was $12.80, the equation 9.80 + 1.50m =
12.80 must be true. Subtracting 9.80 from each side and then dividing each
side by 1.50 yields m = 2.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect and may be the result of errors in setting
up or solving the equation that represents the context.
QUESTION 2.
Choice C is correct. Donald believes he can increase his typing speed by
5 words per minute each month. Terefore, in m months, he believes he
can increase his typing speed by 5m words per minute. Because he is cur-
rently able to type at a speed of 180 words per minute, he believes that in
m months, he will be able to increase his typing speed to 180 = 5m words
per minute.
Choice A is incorrect because the expression indicates that Donald currently
types 5 words per minute and will increase his typing speed by 180 words
per minute each month. Choice B is incorrect because the expression indi-
cates that Donald currently types 225 words per minute, not 180 words
per minute. Choice D is incorrect because the expression indicates that
Donald will decrease, not increase, his typing speed by 5 words per minute
each month.
QUESTION 3.
Choice C is correct. Because there are 16 ounces in 1 pound, a 3-pound pizza
weighs 3 × 16 = 48 ounces. One half of the pizza weighs  _
2 × 48 = 24 ounces,
and one-third of the half weighs  _
3 × 24 = 8 ounces.
Alternatively, since  _
2 ×  3  =  6 , cutting the pizza into halves and then into
thirds results in a pizza that is cut into sixths. Terefore, each slice of the
48-ounce pizza weighs  _
6 × 48 = 8 ounces.
Choice A is incorrect and is the result of cutting each half into sixths rather
than thirds. Choice B is incorrect and is the result of cutting each half into
fourths rather than thirds. Choice D is incorrect and is the result of cutting
the whole pizza into thirds.
QUESTION 4.
Choice B is correct. Because Nick surveyed a random sample of the fresh-
man class, his sample was representative of the entire freshman class. Tus,
the percent of students in the entire freshman class expected to prefer the
Fall Festival in October is appropriately estimated by the percent of students
who preferred it in the sample, 25.6%. Tus, of the 225 students in the fresh-
man class, approximately 225 × 0.256 = 57.6 students would be expected
to prefer having the Fall Festival in October. Of the choices given, this is
closest to 60.
29
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Tese choices may be the result of misap-
plying the concept of percent or of calculation errors.
QUESTION 5.
Choice B is correct. Te density of an object is equal to the mass of the
object divided by the volume of the object, which can be expressed as
density =   mass
volume. Tus, if an object has a density of 3 grams per milliliter
24 grams
and a mass of 24 grams, the equation becomes 3 grams/milliliter =  
volume .
24 grams
_
Tis can be rewritten as volume =
3 grams/milliliter= 8 milliliters.
Choice A is incorrect and be may be the result of confusing the density and
_
the volume and setting up the density equation as 24 =  
3
Choice C is
volume.
incorrect and may be the result of a conceptual error that leads to subtract-
ing 3 from 24. Choice D is incorrect and may be the result of confusing the
mass and the volume and setting up the density equation as 24 =  vol3 me.
QUESTION 6.
Choice A is correct. Let a be the number of hours Angelica worked last
week. Since Raul worked 11 more hours than Angelica, Raul worked a + 11
hours last week. Since they worked a combined total of 59 hours, the equa-
tion a + (a + 11) = 59 must hold. Tis equation can be simplified to 2a + 11 = 59,
or 2a = 48. Terefore, a = 24, and Angelica worked 24 hours last week.
Choice B is incorrect because it is the number of hours Raul worked last week.
Choice C is incorrect. If Angelica worked 40 hours and Raul worked 11 hours
more, Raul would have worked 51 hours, and the combined total number of
hours they worked would be 91, not 59. Choice D is incorrect and may be the
result of solving the equation a + 11 = 59 rather than a + (a + 11) = 59.
QUESTION 7.
Choice A is correct. According to the table, of the 50 movies with the great-
est ticket sales in 2012, 4 are comedy movies with a PG-13 rating. Terefore,
the proportion of the 50 movies with the greatest ticket sales in 2012 that are
comedy movies with a PG-13 rating is  4 ,
or equivalently,  2  
50
25.
Choice B is incorrect;9  is the proportion of the 50 movies with the great-
50
est ticket sales in 2012 that are comedy movies, regardless of rating. Choice
C is incorrect;  2  
11= 2
2  is the proportion of movies with a PG-13 rating that
are comedy movies. Choice D is incorrect;  11 =  22 is the proportion of the
25
50
50 movies with the greatest ticket sales in 2012 that have a rating of PG-13.
30
QUESTION 8.
Choice D is correct. Te quadrants of the xy-plane are defined as follows:
Quadrant I is above the x-axis and to the right of the y-axis; Quadrant II is
above the x-axis and to the lef of the y-axis; Quadrant III is below the x-axis
and to the lef of the y-axis; and Quadrant IV is below the x-axis and to the
right of the y-axis. It is possible for line to pass through Quadrants II, III,
and IV, but not Quadrant I, only if line has negative x- and y-intercepts.
Tis implies that line has a negative slope, since between the negative
x-intercept and the negative y-intercept the value of x increases (from nega-
tive to zero) and the value of y decreases (from zero to negative); so the quo-
tient of the change in y over the change in x, that is, the slope of line , must
be negative.
Choice A is incorrect because a line with an undefined slope is a vertical
line, and if a vertical line passes through Quadrant IV, it must pass through
Quadrant I as well. Choice B is incorrect because a line with a slope of zero
is a horizontal line and, if a horizontal line passes through Quadrant II, it
must pass through Quadrant I as well. Choice C is incorrect because if a
line with a positive slope passes through Quadrant IV, it must pass through
Quadrant I as well.
QUESTION 9.
Choice B is correct. According to the table, in 2012 there was a total of
14,766 + 47,896 = 62,662 registered voters between 18 and 44 years old, and
3,453 + 11,237 = 14,690 of them were from the Midwest region. Terefore,
the probability that a randomly chosen registered voter who was between 18
and 44 years old in 2012 was from Midwest region is  14,690 
62,662≈ 0.234. Of the
given choices, 0.25 is closest to this value.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect and may be the result of errors in selecting
the correct proportion or in calculating the correct value.
QUESTION 10.
Choice A is correct. According to the graph, the animal with the longest ges-
tation period (60 days) has a life expectancy of 3 years.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. All the animals that have a life expectancy
of 4, 8, or 10 years have a gestation period that is shorter than 60 days, which
is the longest gestation period.
QUESTION 11.
Choice A is correct. Te ratio of life expectancy to gestation period for
7 years
the animal represented by point A is approximately  
23 days, or about
31
0.3 years/day, which is greater than the ratio for the animals represented by
the other labeled points (the ratios for points B, C, and D, in units of years
of life expectancy per day of gestation, are approximately  8 ,
 8 ,
and  10 
44
51
51
respectively, each of which is less than 0.2 years/day).
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect and may be the result of errors in calculat-
ing the ratio or in reading the graph.
QUESTION 12.
Choice C is correct. All of the given choices are polynomials. If the graph of
a polynomial function f in the xy-plane has an x-intercept at b, then (xb)
must be a factor of f(x). Since −3, −1, and 1 are each x-intercepts of the graph
of f, it follows that (x + 3), (x +1), and (x − 1) must each be a factor of f(x).
Te factored polynomial function in choice C is the only polynomial given
with these 3 factors.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not contain all three fac-
tors that must exist if the graph of the polynomial function f has x-intercepts
at −3, −1, and 1.
QUESTION 13.
Choice C is correct. Te mosquito population starts at 100 in week 0 and
then is multiplied by a factor of 10 every 5 weeks. Tus, if P(t) is the mos-
,
which indicates an exponential growth relationship.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect and may be the result of an incorrect
interpretation of the relationship or errors in modeling the relationship.
QUESTION 14.
Choice D is correct. According to the given formula, the amount of
money generated for a year at 5% interest, compounded monthly, is
_
1,000
5
12, whereas the amount of money generated at 3% inter-
(1 +  
1,200 )
_
est, compounded monthly, is 1,000
3
12. Terefore, the difference
(1 +  
1,200 )
_
_
between these two amounts, 1,000
5
12 − 1,000
3
12, shows
(1 +  
1,200)
(1 +  
1,200)
how much additional money is generated at an interest rate of 5% than at an
interest rate of 3%.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect and may be the result of misinterpreting
the given formula. For example, the expression in choice C gives how many
times as much money, not how much additional money, is generated at an
interest rate of 5% than at an interest rate of 3%.
32
QUESTION 15.
Choice B is correct. Te graph of y = axb, where a is positive and b is nega-
tive, has a positive y-intercept and rapidly decreases (in particular, decreases
at a faster rate than a linear function) toward the x-axis as x increases. Of the
scatterplots shown, only the one in choice B would be appropriately mod-
eled by such a function.
Choice A is incorrect, as this scatterplot is appropriately modeled by a linear
function. Choice C is incorrect, as this scatterplot is appropriately modeled
by an increasing function. Choice D is incorrect, as this scatterplot shows no
clear relationship between x and y.
QUESTION 16.
Choice A is correct. Te total cost y, in dollars, of buying the materials and
renting the tools for x days from Store A and Store B is found by substituting
the respective values for these stores from the table into the given equation,
y = M + (W + K)x, as shown below.
Store A: y = 750 + (15 + 65)x = 750 + 80x
Store B: y = 600 + (25 + 80)x = 600 + 105x
Tus, the number of days, x, for which the total cost of buying the materials
and renting the tools from Store B is less than or equal to the total cost of
buying the materials and renting the tools from Store A can be found by solv-
ing the inequality 600 + 105x ≤ 750 + 70x. Subtracting 80x and 600 from each
side of 600 + 105x ≤ 750 + 70x and combining like terms yields 25x ≤ 150.
Dividing each side of 25x ≤ 150 by 25 yields x ≤ 6.
Choice B is incorrect. Te inequality x ≥ 6 is the number of days for which
the total cost of buying the materials and renting the tools from Store B is
greater than or equal to the total cost of buying the materials and renting the
tools from Store A. Choices C and D are incorrect and may be the result of
an error in setting up or simplifying the inequality.
QUESTION 17.
Choice D is correct. Te total cost, y, of buying the materials and renting the
tools in terms of the number of days, x, is given as y = M + (W + K)x. If this
relationship is graphed in the xy-plane, the slope of the graph is equal to W + K,
which is the daily rental cost of the wheelbarrow plus the daily rental cost of the
concrete mixer, that is, the total daily rental costs of the tools.
Choice A is incorrect because the total cost of the project is y. Choice B is
incorrect because the total cost of the materials is M, which is the y-intercept
of the graph of y = M + (W + K)x. Choice C is incorrect because the total daily
cost of the project is the total cost of the project divided by the total number of
days the project took and, since materials cost more than 0 dollars, this is not
the same as the total daily rental costs.
33
QUESTION 18.
Choice C is correct. Te volume V of a right circular cylinder is given by
the formula V = πr2h, where r is the base radius of the cylinder and h is
the height of the cylinder. Since each glass has an internal diameter of 3
inches, each glass has a base radius of  _
2 inches. Since the height of the milk
in each glass is 6 inches, the volume of milk in each glass is V = π
(_ 2 )2(6 )
42.41 cubic inches. Te total number of glasses Jim can pour from 1 gallon is
number of cubic inches in 1 gallon
equal to
=  231,
which is approximately
number of cubic inches in 1 glass
42.41
5.45 glasses. Since the question asks for the largest number of full glasses Jim
can pour, the number of glasses needs to be rounded down to 5.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect and may be the result of conceptual
errors or calculation errors. For example, choice D is incorrect because even
though Jim can pour more than 5 full glasses, he will not have enough milk
to pour a full 6th glass.
QUESTION 19.
Choice A is correct. Adding 4 to each side of the inequality 3p − 2 ≥ 1 yields
the inequality 3p + 2 ≥ 5. Terefore, the least possible value of 3p + 2 is 5.
Choice B is incorrect because it gives the least possible value of 3p, not of
3p + 2. Choice C is incorrect. If the least possible value of 3p + 2 were 2, then
it would follow that 3p + 2 ≥ 2. Subtracting 4 from each side of this inequal-
ity would yield 3p − 2 ≥ −2. Tis contradicts the given inequality, 3p − 2 ≥ 1.
Terefore, the least possible value of 3p + 2 cannot be 2. Choice D is incor-
rect because it gives the least possible value of p, not of 3p +2.
QUESTION 20.
Choice C is correct. Since the biomass of the lake doubles each year, the bio-
mass starts at a positive value and then increases exponentially over time. Of
the graphs shown, only the graph in choice C is of an increasing exponential
function.
Choice A is incorrect because the biomass of the lake must start at a positive
value, not zero. Furthermore, this graph shows linear growth, not exponen-
tial growth. Choice B is incorrect because the biomass of the lake must start
at a positive value, not zero. Furthermore, this graph has vertical segments
and is not a function. Choice D is incorrect because the biomass of the lake
does not remain the same over time.
QUESTION 21.
Choice C is correct. Te exact coordinates of the scatterplot in the xy-plane
cannot be read from the bar graph provided. However, for a data point to be
34
above the line y = x, the value of y must be greater than the value of x. Tat
is, the consumption in 2010 must be greater than the consumption in 2000.
Tis occurs for 3 types of energy sources shown in the bar graph: biofuels,
geothermal, and wind.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect and may be the result of a conceptual error
in presenting the data shown in a scatterplot. For example, choice B is incorrect
because there are 2 data points in the scatterplot that lie below the line y = x.
QUESTION 22.
Choice B is correct. Reading the graph, the amount of wood power used
in 2000 was 2.25 quadrillion BTUs and the amount used in 2010 was
2.00 quadrillion BTUs. To find the percent decrease, find the difference
between the two numbers, divide by the original value, and then multiply
by 100:  2.22.25 .00
× 100 =  0.25 
2.25× 100 ≈ 11.1 percent. Of the choices given,
11% is closest to the percent decrease in the consumption of wood power
from 2000 to 2010.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect and may be the result of errors in reading
the bar graph or in calculating the percent decrease.
QUESTION 23.
Choice B is correct. Te standard deviation is a measure of how far the data
set values are from the mean. In the data set for City A, the large majority
of the data are in three of the five possible values, which are the three val-
ues closest to the mean. In the data set for City B, the data are more spread
out, with many values at the minimum and maximum values. Terefore, by
observation, the data for City B have a larger standard deviation.
Alternatively, one can calculate the mean and visually inspect the difference
between the data values and the mean. For City A the mean is  1,21 5≈ 78.8,
and for City B the mean is  1,21 7≈ 78.0. Te data for City A are closely clus-
tered near 79, which indicates a small standard deviation. The data for City B
are spread out away from 78, which indicates a larger standard deviation.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect and may be the result of misconceptions
about the standard deviation.
QUESTION 24.
Choice C is correct. Since segment AB is a diameter of the circle, it follows
that arc
DB  is a semicircle. Tus, the circumference of the circle is twice
the length of arc ADB
which is 2(8π) = 16π. Since the circumference of a cir-
cle is 2π times the radius of the circle, the radius of this circle is 16π divided
by 2π, which is equal to 8.
35
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect and may be the result of losing track of
factors of 2 or of solving for the diameter of the circle instead of the radius.
For example, choice D is the diameter of the circle.
QUESTION 25.
Choice B is correct. In f(x), factoring out the greatest common factor, 2x, yields
f(x) = 2x (x2 + 3x + 2 ). It is given that g(x) = x2 + 3x + 2, so using substitution,
f(x) can be rewritten as f(x) = 2xg(x). In the equation p(x) = f(x) + 3g(x), sub-
stituting 2xg(x) for f(x) yields p(x) = 2xg(x) + 3 ∙ g(x). In p(x), factoring out
the greatest common factor, g(x), yields p(x) = (g(x ))(2x + 3 ). Because 2x + 3
is a factor of p(x), it follows that p(x) is divisible by 2x + 3.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because 2x + 3 is not a factor of the poly-
nomials h(x), r(x), or s(x). Using the substitution f(x) = 2xg(x), and factor-
ing further, h(x), r(x), and s(x) can be rewritten as follows:
h(x) = (x + 1)(x + 2)(2x + 1)
r(x) = (x + 1)(x + 2)(4x + 3)
s(x) = 2 (x + 1)(x + 2)(3x + 1)
Because 2x + 3 is not a factor of h(x), r(x), or s(x), it follows that h(x), r(x),
and s(x) are not divisible by 2x + 3.
QUESTION 26.
Choice C is correct. If −y < x < y, the value of x is either between −y and 0
or between 0 and y, so statement I, |x| < y is true. It is possible that the value
of x is greater than zero, but x could be negative. For example, a counter-
example to statement II, x > 0, is x = −2 and y = 3, yielding −3 < −2 < 3, so
the given condition is satisfied. Statement III must be true since −y < x < y
implies that −y < y, so y must be greater than 0. Terefore, statements I and
III are the only statements that must be true.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because each of these choices either omits
a statement that must be true or includes a statement that could be false.
QUESTION 27.
Choice D is correct. To interpret what the number 61 in the equation of the
line of best fit represents, one must first understand what the data in the
scatterplot represent. Each of the points in the scatterplot represents a large
US city, graphed according to its population density (along the horizontal
axis) and its relative housing cost (along the vertical axis). Te line of best
fit for this data represents the expected relative housing cost for a certain
population density, based on the data points in the graph. Tus, one might
say, on average, a city of population density x is expected to have a relative
36
housing cost of y%, where y = 0.0125x + 61. Te number 61 in the equation
represents the y-intercept of the line of best fit, in that when the population
density, x, is 0, there is an expected relative housing cost of 61%. Tis might
not make the best sense within the context of the problem, in that when the
population density is 0, the population is 0, so there probably wouldn’t be
any housing costs. However, it could be interpreted that for cities with low
population densities, housing costs were likely around or above 61% (since
below 61% would be for cities with negative population densities, which is
impossible).
Choice A is incorrect because it interprets the values of the vertical axis as
dollars and not percentages. Choice B is incorrect because the lowest hous-
ing cost is about 61% of the national average, not 61% of the highest housing
cost. Choice C is incorrect because one cannot absolutely assert that no city
with a low population density had housing costs below 61% of the national
average, as the model shows that it is unlikely, but not impossible.
QUESTION 28.
Choice D is correct. Te minimum value of a quadratic function appears as
a constant in the vertex form of its equation, which can be found from the
standard form by completing the square. Rewriting f(x) = (x + 6)(x − 4) in
standard form gives f(x) = x2 + 2x − 24. Since the coefficient of the linear
term is 2, the equation for f(x) can be rewritten in terms of (x + 1)2 as follows:
f(x) = x2 + 2x − 24 = (x2 + 2x + 1) − 1 − 24 = (x + 1)2 − 25
Since the square of a real number is always nonnegative, the vertex form
f(x) = (x + 1)2 − 25 shows that the minimum value of f is −25 (and occurs at
x = −1). Terefore, this equivalent form of f shows the minimum value of f
as a constant.
Choices A and C are incorrect because they are not equivalent to the given
equation for f. Choice B is incorrect because the minimum value of f, which
is −25, does not appear as a constant or a coefficient.
QUESTION 29.
Choice B is correct. Since the average of 2 numbers is the sum of
the 2 numbers divided by 2, the equations x =  m 2 9,
y =  2m 2 15and
x + y + z
z =  3m 2 18are true. Te average of x, y, and z is given by
3 
Substituting the
preceding expressions in m for each variable gives
m + 9
+  2m 2 15
+  3m 2 18
2 
_
. Tis fraction can be simplified to 6m 6 42
,
3 
or m + 7.
37
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect and may be the result of conceptual errors or
calculation errors. For example, choice D is the sum of x, y, and z, not the average.
QUESTION 30.
Choice D is correct. Te equation f(x) = k gives the solutions to the system
of equations y = f(x) = x3x2x −  11 
4 and y = k. A real solution of a system
of two equations corresponds to a point of intersection of the graphs of the
two equations in the xy-plane. Te graph of y = k is a horizontal line that
contains the point (0, k). Tus, the line with equation y = −3 is a horizontal
line that intersects the graph of the cubic equation three times, and it follows
that the equation f(x) = −3 has three real solutions.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the graphs of the corresponding
equations are horizontal lines that do not intersect the graph of the cubic
equation three times.
QUESTION 31.
The correct answer is 1160. Te pool contains 600 gallons of water before
the hose is turned on, and water flows from the hose into the pool at a rate
of 8 gallons per minute. Tus, the number of gallons of water in the pool
m minutes afer the hose is turned on is given by the expression 600 + 8m.
Terefore, afer 70 minutes, there will be 600 + 8(70) = 1160 gallons of water
in the pool.
QUESTION 32.
The correct answer is  _ or .5. Te equation that models the normal
2
systolic blood pressure, in millimeters of mercury, for a male x years old,
P = x_+2 20,
can be rewritten as P =  _
2 x + 110. For each increase of 1 year
in age, the value of x increases by 1; hence, P becomes  _
2(x + 1) + 110 =
(_ 2 x + 110 )+  _ 2. Tat is, P increases by  _ 2 millimeter of mercury. Either the
fraction  _
2or its decimal equivalent, .5, may be gridded as the correct answer.
QUESTION 33.
The correct answer is 4.55. Since there are 16 Roman digits in a Roman
pes, 75 digits is equal to  75 
16pes. Since 1 pes is equal to 11.65 inches,  16 pes is
equal to  75
16(11.65) inches. Since 12 inches is equal to 1 foot,  
16(11.65) inches
is equal to  75 
16(11.65)(1
2  ) 4.55078125 feet. Terefore, 75 digits is equal to
75
11.65)
16(
( 1  12) = 4.55078125 feet. Rounded to the nearest hundredth of a
foot, 75 Roman digits is equal to 4.55 feet.
38
QUESTION 34.
The correct answer is 150. In the study, 240 male and 160 plus another
100 female bats have been tagged, so that 500 bats have been tagged alto-
gether. If x more male bats must be tagged for  _
5 of the total number of bats
to be male, the proportion  total bats 
=  240 + x 
500 + x=  5 must be true. Multiplying
each side of  240 + x =  _
500 + x
5 by 5(500 + x) gives 5(240 + x) = 3(500 + x), which
simplifies to 1200 + 5x = 1500 + 3x. Terefore, x = 150, and 150 more male
bats must be tagged; this will bring the total to 390 male bats out of 650 bats,
which is equal to  _
5.
QUESTION 35.
The correct answer is 2.25 or  _
4. Let qs be the dynamic pressure of the slower
fluid moving with velocity vs , and let qf be the dynamic pressure of the faster
fluid moving with velocity vf . Ten vf = 1.5vs .
Given the equation q =  _  
2nv2, substituting the dynamic pressure and velocity
of the faster fluid gives qf =  _  
2nvf2. Since vf = 1.5vs, the expression 1.5vs can be
substituted for vf in this equation, giving qf =  _
2n(1.5vs)2. Tis can be rewrit-
ten as qf = (2.25) _
2nvs2 = (2.25)qs. Terefore, the ratio of the dynamic pres-
qf
2.25qs
_
sure of the faster fluid is  
  =
= 2.25. Either 2.25 or the equivalent
qs
qs
improper fraction  _
4 may be gridded as the correct answer.
QUESTION 36.
The correct answer is 29, 30, 31, 32, 33, or 34. Since the radius of the cir-
cle is 10, its circumference is 20π. Te full circumference of a circle is 360°.
Tus, an arc of length s on the circle corresponds to a central angle of x°,
_
x
_s
where
=
, or x = 360 s. Since 5 < s < 6, it follows that 360
36
20π
20π
20π(5) < x <
360
20π(6), which becomes, to the nearest tenth, 28.6 < x < 34.4. Terefore, the
possible integer values of x are 29, 30, 31, 32, 33, and 34. Any one of these
numbers may be gridded as the correct answer.
39
QUESTION 37.
The correct answer is .72. According to the analyst’s estimate, the value V,
in dollars, of the stock will decrease by 28% each week for t weeks, where
t = 1, 2, or 3, with its value being given by the formula V = 360(r)t. Tis
equation is an example of exponential decay. A stock losing 28% of its value
each week is the same as the stock’s value decreasing to 72% of its value from
the previous week, since V − (.28)V = (.72)V. Using this information, afer
1 week the value, in dollars, of the stock will be V = 360(.72); afer 2 weeks
the value of the stock will be V = 360(.72)(.72) = 360(.72)2; and afer 3 weeks
the value of the stock will be V = 360(.72)(.72)(.72) = 360(.72)3. For all of
the values of t in question, namely t = 1, 2, and 3, the equation V = 360(.72)t
is true. Terefore, the analyst should use .72 as the value of r.
QUESTION 38.
The correct answer is 134. Te analyst’s prediction is that the stock will
lose 28 percent of its value for each of the next three weeks. Tus, the
predicted value of the stock afer 1 week is $360 − (0.28)$360 = $259.20;
afer 2 weeks, $259.20 − (0.28)$259.20 ≈ $186.62; and afer 3 weeks,
$186.62 − (0.28)$186.62 ≈ $134.37. Terefore, to the nearest dollar, the stock
analyst believes the stock will be worth 134 dollars afer three weeks.
40
Scoring Your
SAT
® Practice Test #4
Congratulations on completing an SAT® practice test. To score your test, use these instructions
and the conversion tables and answer key at the end of this document.
Scores Overview
The redesigned SAT will provide more information about your learning by reporting more
scores than ever before. Each of the redesigned assessments (SAT, PSAT/NMSQT®, PSAT™ 10,
and PSAT™ 8/9) will report test scores and cross-test scores on a common scale. Additionally,
subscores will be reported to provide additional diagnostic information to students, educators,
and parents. For more details about scores, visit collegereadiness.collegeboard.org/sat/scores.
The practice test you completed was written by the College Board’s Assessment Design &
Development team using the same processes and review standards used when writing the
actual SAT. Everything from the layout of the page to the construction of the questions accurately
reflects what you’ll see on test day.
How to Calculate Your Practice Test Scores
GET SET UP
You’ll need the answer sheet that you bubbled in while taking the practice test. You’ll also
need the conversion tables and answer key at the end of this document.
Using the answer key, count up your total correct answers for each section. You may want
to write the number of correct answers for each section at the bottom of that section in the
answer key.
Using your marked-up answer key and the conversion tables, follow the directions to get all
of your scores.
SAT Practice Test #4
Created 8/4/2015
1
GET SECTION AND TOTAL SCORES
Your total score on the SAT practice test is the sum of your Evidence-Based Reading and Writing
Section score and your Math Section score. To get your total score, you will convert what we call
the “raw score” for each section — the number of questions you got right in that section — into
the “scaled score” for that section, then calculate the total score.
GET YOUR EVIDENCE-BASED READING AND WRITING SECTION SCORE
Calculate your SAT Evidence-Based Reading and Writing Section score (it’s on a scale of 200-
800) by first determining your Reading Test score and your Writing and Language Test score.
Here’s how:
Count the number of correct answers you got on Section 1 (the Reading Test). There is no
penalty for wrong answers. The number of correct answers is your raw score.
Go to Raw Score Conversion Table 1: Section and Test Scores on page 7. Look in the “Raw Score”
column for your raw score, and match it to the number in the “Reading Test Score” column.
Do the same with Section 2 to determine your Writing and Language Test score.
Add your Reading Test score to your Writing and Language Test score.
Multiply that number by 10. This is your Evidence-Based Reading and Writing Section score.
EXAMPLE: Sofia answered 29 of the 52 questions correctly on the SAT Reading Test and 19 of
the 44 questions correctly on the SAT Writing and Language Test. Using the table on page 7, she
calculates that she received an SAT Reading Test score of 27 and an SAT Writing and Language
Test score of 23. She adds 27 to 23 (gets 50) and then multiplies by 10 to determine her SAT
Evidence-Based Reading and Writing Section score of 500.
GET YOUR MATH SECTION SCORE
Calculate your SAT Math Section score (it’s on a scale of 200-800).
Count the number of correct answers you got on Section 3 (Math Test — No Calculator) and
Section 4 (Math Test — Calculator). There is no penalty for wrong answers.
Add the number of correct answers you got on Section 3 (Math Test — No Calculator) and
Section 4 (Math Test — Calculator).
Use Raw Score Conversion Table 1: Section and Test Scores to turn your raw score into your
Math Section score.
GET YOUR TOTAL SCORE
Add your Evidence-Based Reading and Writing Section score to your Math Section score. The
result is your total score on the SAT Practice Test, on a scale of 400-1600.
SAT Practice Test #4
Created 8/4/2015
2
GET SUBSCORES
Subscores provide more detailed information about your strengths in specific areas within
literacy and math. They are reported on a scale of 1-15.
HEART OF ALGEBRA
The Heart of Algebra subscore is based on questions from the Math Test that focus on linear
equations and inequalities.
Add up your total correct answers from the following set of questions:
„„
Math Test - No Calculator: Questions 1-3; 7-8; 12; 19-20
„„
Math Test - Calculator: Questions 1-2; 6; 8; 16-17; 19; 26; 29; 32; 34
Your total correct answers from all of these questions is your raw score.
Use Raw Score Conversion Table 2: Subscores on page 8 to determine your Heart of Algebra
subscore.
PROBLEM SOLVING AND DATA ANALYSIS
The Problem Solving and Data Analysis subscore is based on questions from the Math Test that
focus on quantitative reasoning, the interpretation and synthesis of data, and solving problems
in rich and varied contexts.
Add up your total correct answers from the following set of questions:
„„
Math Test - No Calculator: No Questions
„„
Math Test - Calculator: Questions 3-5; 7; 9-11; 13-15; 20-23; 27; 31; 33
Your total correct answers from all of these questions is your raw score.
Use Raw Score Conversion Table 2: Subscores to determine your Problem Solving and Data
Analysis subscore.
PASSPORT TO ADVANCED MATH
The Passport to Advanced Math subscore is based on questions from the Math Test that focus
on topics central to the ability of students to progress to more advanced mathematics, such
as understanding the structure of expressions, reasoning with more complex equations, and
interpreting and building functions.
Add up your total correct answers from the following set of questions:
„„
Math Test - No Calculator: Questions 4-6; 9-11; 13; 15; 18
„„
Math Test - Calculator: Questions 12; 25; 28; 30; 35; 37-38
Your total correct answers from all of these questions is your raw score.
Use Raw Score Conversion Table 2: Subscores to determine your Passport to Advanced
Math subscore.
SAT Practice Test #4
Created 8/4/2015
3
EXPRESSION OF IDEAS
The Expression of Ideas subscore is based on questions from the Writing and Language Test that
focus on topic development, organization, and rhetorically effective use of language.
Add up your total correct answers from the following set of questions:
„„
Writing and Language Test: Questions 2; 4-5; 8; 10-11; 14-18; 20; 23; 25-27; 31; 33; 37-39;
41-42; 44
Your total correct answers from all of these questions is your raw score.
Use Raw Score Conversion Table 2: Subscores to determine your Expression of Ideas subscore.
STANDARD ENGLISH CONVENTIONS
The Standard English Conventions subscore is based on questions from the Writing and
Language Test that focus on sentence structure, usage, and punctuation.
Add up your total correct answers from the following set of questions:
„„
Writing and LanguageTest: Questions 1; 3; 6-7; 9; 12-13; 19; 21-22; 24; 28-30; 32; 34-36; 40; 43
Your total correct answers from all of these questions is your raw score.
Use Raw Score Conversion Table 2: Subscores to determine your Standard English
Conventions subscore.
WORDS IN CONTEXT
The Words in Context subscore is based on questions from both the Reading Test and the Writing
and Language Test that address word/phrase meaning in context and rhetorical word choice.
Add up your total correct answers from the following set of questions:
„„
Reading Test: Questions 3; 9; 13; 18; 24; 31; 33-34; 45; 48
„„
Writing and Language Test: Questions 5; 8; 14; 16; 23; 26; 41-42
Your total correct answers from all of these questions is your raw score.
Use Raw Score Conversion Table 2: Subscores to determine your Words in Context subscore.
COMMAND OF EVIDENCE
The Command of Evidence subscore is based on questions from both the Reading Test and the
Writing and Language Test that ask you to interpret and use evidence found in a wide range of
passages and informational graphics, such as graphs, tables, and charts.
Add up your total correct answers from the following set of questions:
„„
Reading Test: Questions 2; 6; 15; 20; 28; 39; 44; 47; 50; 52
„„
Writing and Language Test: Questions 10-11; 18; 20; 25; 31; 37-38
Your total correct answers from all of these questions is your raw score.
Use Raw Score Conversion Table 2: Subscores to determine your Command of Evidence
subscore.
SAT Practice Test #4
Created 8/4/2015
4
GET CROSS-TEST SCORES
The new SAT also reports two cross-test scores: Analysis in History/Social Studies and Analysis
in Science. These scores are based on questions in the Reading, Writing and Language, and Math
Tests that ask students to think analytically about texts and questions in these subject areas.
Cross-test scores are reported on a scale of 10-40.
ANALYSIS IN HISTORY/SOCIAL STUDIES
Add up your total correct answers from the following set of questions:
„„
Reading Test: Questions 11-21; 32-41
„„
Writing and Language Test: Questions 23; 25-27; 31; 33
„„
Math Test - No Calculator: Question 12
„„
Math Test - Calculator: Questions 9; 14; 16-17; 27; 33; 37
Your total correct answers from all of these questions is your raw score.
Use Raw Score Conversion Table 3: Cross-Test Scores on page 9 to determine your Analysis
in History/Social Studies cross-test score.
ANALYSIS IN SCIENCE
Add up your total correct answers from the following set of questions:
„„
Reading Test: Questions 22-31; 42-52
„„
Writing and Language Test: Questions 14-18; 20
„„
Math Test - No Calculator: Question 20
„„
Math Test - Calculator: Questions 5; 10-11; 13; 21-22; 32
Your total correct answers from all of these questions is your raw score.
Use Raw Score Conversion Table 3: Cross-Test Scores to determine your Analysis in Science
cross-test score.
SAT Practice Test #4
Created 8/4/2015
5
SAT Practice Test #4: Worksheets
ANSWER KEY
Writing and Language Test Answers
Reading Test Answers
1 C
12
D
23 C
34 A
45 D
1 B
12
D
23 C
34 C
2 D
13
A
24 C
35 D
46 A
2 B
13
B
24 C
35 C
3 D
14
B
25 B
36 B
47 D
3 B
14
D
25 B
36 B
4 C
15
A
26 C
37 D
48 C
4 A
15
C
26 D
37 D
5 A
16
C
27 A
38 D
49 D
5 D
16
C
27 C
38 A
6 A
17
C
28 B
39 D
50 C
6 B
17
A
28 A
39 C
7 B
18
A
29 B
40 A
51 B
7 D
18
C
29 D
40 B
8 D
19
B
30 D
41 B
52 A
8 B
19
A
30 B
41 D
9 D
20 A
31 D
42 C
9 C
20 C
31 C
42 D
10 A
21 D
32 D
43 B
10 A
21 B
32 B
43 A
11 C
22 A
33 D
44 A
11 C
22 D
33 A
44 B
READING TEST
WRITING AND
RAW SCORE
LANGUAGE TEST
(NUMBER OF
RAW SCORE
CORRECT ANSWERS)
(NUMBER OF
CORRECT ANSWERS)
Math Test
Math Test
No Calculator Answers
Calculator Answers
1 A
11 C
1 B
11 A
21 C
31 1160
2 A
12 C
2 C
12 C
22 B
32 1/2 or 0.5
3 A
13 B
3 C
13 C
23 B
33 4.55
4 B
14 A
4 B
14 D
24 C
34 150
5 C
15 B
5 B
15 B
25 B
35 9/4 or 2.25
6 B
16 9
6 A
16 A
26 C
36 29, 30, 31, 32, 33, or 34
7 D
17 3/5 or 0.6
7 A
17 D
27 D
37 0.72
8 A
18 5
8 D
18 C
28 D
38 134
9 D
19 0
9 B
19 A
29 B
10 D
20 25
10 A
20 C
30 D